ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client with severe Thrombocytopenia. How should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over which of the following time frames?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered promptly to minimize the risk of clumping. The correct administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit to maintain their therapeutic effectiveness and reduce adverse effects. Administering platelets over longer time frames can lead to decreased efficacy and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the 300 mL of pooled platelets within 30 minutes per unit.
Question 2 of 5
While caring for a client on long-term aspirin therapy, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Long-term aspirin therapy can increase the risk of hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which can lead to bleeding complications. Aspirin inhibits platelet function, potentially causing bleeding in the brain and increasing the risk of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice B, thromboembolic stroke, is incorrect because aspirin therapy is actually used to prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Choices C and D, iron deficiency anemia and neutropenia, are not directly associated with long-term aspirin therapy.
Question 3 of 5
A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am frequently constipated.' Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down intestinal motility, leading to constipation as a side effect. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with adverse effects of Verapamil. Increased urination is not a common side effect, skin peeling is not related to Verapamil use, and ringing in the ears is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
Question 4 of 5
A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain. If the pain is not relieved after 5 minutes, the client should call 911 and take a second tablet. Taking more than the recommended dose can lead to serious side effects, and swallowing the tablet would not provide the rapid effect needed in cases of chest pain. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the standard protocol for nitroglycerin use in treating angina. Choice B is incorrect as the second tablet should be taken after 5 minutes, not 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as taking up to five tablets in 15 minutes is excessive and can result in serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption, not swallowed.
Question 5 of 5
A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.