ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Exam Practice Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV antibiotic to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the professional take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first action the healthcare professional should take is to check the client's allergy history before administering the antibiotic to prevent a potential allergic reaction. It is crucial to identify any known allergies to antibiotics to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Administering an antihistamine prior to the antibiotic (Choice A) is not recommended unless an allergic reaction occurs. Monitoring the client's urine output (Choice B) and assessing the client's vital signs (Choice D) are important but not the first step in this situation. Checking the client's allergy history takes precedence to prevent adverse reactions.
Question 2 of 9
When educating a patient about Regular Insulin, you should include which instruction: ATI PHARMACOLOGY LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 PROCTORED EXAM -STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS & ANS 100% CORRECTLY VERIFIED GRADED A+ ATI PHARMACOLOGY LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 PROCTORED EXAM -STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS & ANS 100% CORRECTLY VERIFIED GRADED A+
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is important to educate a patient that Regular Insulin should be injected subcutaneously to ensure proper absorption of the medication. Injecting the insulin into the subcutaneous tissue allows for a slower and more consistent absorption of the medication, which helps in controlling blood glucose levels effectively. Administering insulin subcutaneously also minimizes the risk of complications associated with other injection sites or techniques.
Question 3 of 9
A patient was admitted to the emergency department with a pulse oximeter reading of 85% after a successful prehospital resuscitation from cardiac arrest due to an asthma attack. What is the most important initial drug to administer as ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oxygen is the most important initial intervention for a patient with a low pulse oximeter reading (85%) to correct hypoxia and prevent further complications. While epinephrine (A) and albuterol (C) are used to treat asthma, oxygen is the priority to address the immediate hypoxia. Sodium bicarbonate (B) is not indicated unless there is severe metabolic acidosis.
Question 4 of 9
A solution for the eyes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Collyria refers to eye drops or an eye lotion that is used to treat eye conditions. When the question is asking for a solution for the eyes, collyria is the most appropriate choice among the options given. Effervescent, mucilage, and spirits do not specifically relate to eye treatments. Collodion is a type of liquid adhesive used in medical settings, but it is not primarily intended for eye-related issues. Therefore, collyria is the correct solution for the eyes.
Question 5 of 9
When administering medications to a 4-month-old infant, which of the following pharmacokinetic principles should be considered? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When administering medications to a 4-month-old infant, the pharmacokinetic principle to consider is that infants have immature liver function until 1 year of age. This requires medications metabolized by the liver to be administered in smaller dosages. While infants do have a more rapid gastric emptying time, immature liver function is a more critical pharmacokinetic consideration in this context. Additionally, although infants have a poorly developed blood-brain barrier, this relates more to pharmacodynamic effects rather than pharmacokinetic principles. The statement about infants having an increased ability to absorb topical medications is not directly related to pharmacokinetic principles, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 6 of 9
A client is starting a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should be included?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clients prescribed verapamil should be advised to avoid grapefruit juice as it can potentiate the drug's effects, leading to adverse reactions. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of verapamil, resulting in higher blood levels of the medication and an increased risk of side effects. Instructions such as taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) are not specific to verapamil and are generally recommended. While monitoring blood pressure regularly (Choice C) is important for clients on antihypertensive medications, it is not a direct concern related to verapamil. Monitoring heart rate daily (Choice D) is not a primary consideration when starting verapamil, as it is more commonly used for its effects on blood pressure and arrhythmias rather than heart rate.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Elevated AST levels in liver function tests should be reported to the provider when a client is prescribed Metformin due to the potential risk of hepatotoxicity associated with the medication. Elevated Hemoglobin A1C (choice A), Creatinine level within normal range (choice B), and BUN level within normal range (choice C) are not directly concerning when initiating Metformin therapy.
Question 8 of 9
Which one of the following antipsychotics has been shown to be a partial agonist at the dopamine D2 receptor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aripiprazole, a third-generation antipsychotic, acts as a partial agonist at D2 receptors, stabilizing dopamine activity: it activates receptors in low-dopamine states (e.g., negative symptoms) and competes with excess dopamine (e.g., psychosis), reducing side effects like EPS. Clozapine, a second-generation drug, has weak D2 affinity, targeting 5HT2 and other receptors. Haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, is a D2 antagonist. Risperidone and thioridazine block D2 fully, not partially. Aripiprazole's unique partial agonism, confirmed by pharmacological data, balances efficacy and tolerability, distinguishing it in schizophrenia treatment.
Question 9 of 9
A client with cancer and a prescription for methotrexate PO reports bleeding gums while being assessed by a nurse in a provider's clinic. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on methotrexate reports bleeding gums is to check the client's current platelet count. Bleeding gums may indicate thrombocytopenia, a decreased platelet count which can be a severe side effect of methotrexate therapy. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial for early detection and management of this potentially life-threatening complication. Choice A is incorrect as bleeding gums in this context may not be an expected adverse effect of methotrexate. Choice C is irrelevant and does not address the potential underlying issue of thrombocytopenia. Choice D is not the primary action needed at this point; checking the platelet count is more urgent to assess the severity of the situation.