A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available dosage is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?

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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available dosage is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) 2 tablets. To understand why, we need to calculate the total dose required. The prescription calls for Haloperidol 2 mg every 12 hours. Therefore, in a 24-hour period, the total dose needed would be 4 mg (2 mg every 12 hours). Since each tablet contains 1 mg of Haloperidol, the healthcare professional would need to administer 4 tablets in a 24-hour period to meet the prescribed dose. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) 1 tablet: This is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 1 mg, which is insufficient to meet the required dose of 4 mg in 24 hours. C) 3 tablets: This is incorrect because 3 tablets would provide 3 mg, which is higher than the required dose of 4 mg in 24 hours. D) 4 tablets: This is incorrect as well because administering 4 tablets would exceed the prescribed dose of 4 mg in 24 hours, leading to potential overdose and adverse effects. In an educational context, this question assesses the healthcare professional's ability to calculate medication dosages accurately and demonstrates the importance of understanding dosage calculations to ensure patient safety and effective treatment. It reinforces the need for precision in medication administration to prevent under or overdosing, highlighting the critical role pharmacology plays in healthcare practice.

Question 2 of 5

A client is taking oral Oxycodone and Ibuprofen in recommended doses. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When Oxycodone, a narcotic analgesic, and Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), are taken together, they work synergistically to enhance the pain-relieving effects of both medications. These drugs act through different mechanisms, leading to a combined analgesic effect that is more effective than when used alone. Therefore, the interaction between Oxycodone and Ibuprofen results in an increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications.

Question 3 of 5

A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) This medication has a low risk for dependency. It is important for the nurse to include this information because Buspirone is a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, and one of its advantages is its low potential for causing dependency or addiction compared to other anti-anxiety medications like benzodiazepines. Option A) Take this medication with food is incorrect because Buspirone can be taken with or without food, so it is not necessary to always take it with food. Option B) Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hours is incorrect because Buspirone may take several weeks to reach its full therapeutic effect, so it is important for the client to understand that it may not provide immediate relief of anxiety symptoms. Option C) Take this medication daily for anxiety is incorrect because Buspirone is typically taken on a scheduled basis, not only when experiencing anxiety symptoms. It is important for the client to adhere to the prescribed dosing schedule for optimal effectiveness. Educationally, understanding the properties of different medications used to treat anxiety is crucial for nurses to provide accurate and comprehensive information to clients. By knowing the characteristics of Buspirone, nurses can guide clients in using the medication effectively and help prevent misconceptions or misuse. It also fosters a culture of safe and informed medication management in healthcare settings.

Question 4 of 5

A client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action by the nurse is to perform immediate gastric lavage (Option A) for a client with a plasma Lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L. Gastric lavage helps remove the unabsorbed lithium from the stomach, preventing further absorption and reducing toxicity. Lithium toxicity can lead to serious complications such as neurologic symptoms, renal failure, and even death. Gastric lavage is a rapid and effective way to reduce the amount of lithium in the body. Option B, preparing the client for hemodialysis, is not the initial intervention for lithium toxicity. Hemodialysis is considered if the lithium level is extremely high or if the client is experiencing severe symptoms that are not responsive to other treatments. Option C, administering an additional oral dose of lithium, is contraindicated in the case of lithium toxicity as it would further increase the lithium level in the body. Option D, requesting a stat repeat of the laboratory test, may be important for monitoring the client's lithium levels after the initial intervention of gastric lavage. However, in the acute phase of toxicity, immediate action to reduce the lithium level is crucial to prevent harm. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate interventions for lithium toxicity is essential for nurses caring for clients on lithium therapy. Nurses need to be able to recognize the signs of lithium toxicity, know the appropriate interventions, and understand the importance of timely and effective management to ensure positive client outcomes. Regular education and training on pharmacology principles, including drug toxicities and their management, are vital for nursing practice.

Question 5 of 5

A client has a new prescription for Clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct statement that the nurse should include in the teaching is option D) "You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week." Rationale: - Correct Answer (D): Clozapine is known to cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Regular monitoring of white blood cell counts is crucial to detect and prevent this potentially life-threatening side effect. This statement emphasizes the importance of close monitoring to ensure the client's safety. - Incorrect Answer (A): While a high-carbohydrate snack may be recommended to manage potential side effects like weight gain associated with Clozapine, this is not the most critical information to include in the teaching compared to the need for white blood cell monitoring. - Incorrect Answer (B): Hand tremors are not a common side effect of Clozapine, so emphasizing this potential effect may cause unnecessary concern for the client and is not a priority in the teaching. - Incorrect Answer (C): Temporary numbness of the mouth is not a common side effect of Clozapine. Focusing on this potential side effect may distract from the more critical information about monitoring white blood cell counts. Educational Context: Understanding the side effects and monitoring requirements of psychiatric medications like Clozapine is essential for nurses to ensure the safe and effective care of clients with mental health conditions. Emphasizing the importance of specific monitoring protocols, such as regular white blood cell count monitoring in the case of Clozapine, helps prevent serious complications and promotes client well-being. Nurses play a crucial role in educating clients about their medications to empower them to manage their health effectively.

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