ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In educating a client newly prescribed with warfarin, the healthcare professional should prioritize emphasizing the importance of reporting any signs of bleeding to their healthcare provider, making option B the correct choice. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors, hence increasing the risk of bleeding. Prompt reporting of any signs of bleeding such as unexplained bruising, blood in urine or stool, or bleeding gums is crucial to prevent serious complications. Option A, which suggests avoiding foods high in vitamin K, is incorrect in this context. While vitamin K can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects, it is essential for the healthcare provider to adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain a balance rather than avoiding these foods completely. Option C advises using a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding, and option D recommends using an electric razor to prevent cuts. While these suggestions promote good practices to reduce the risk of bleeding in general, they are not as critical or directly related to the potential side effects of warfarin as reporting signs of bleeding promptly. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind the correct answer helps the client comprehend the importance of monitoring for potential side effects of warfarin and taking appropriate action. This knowledge empowers the client to actively participate in their care and promotes medication safety and adherence.
Question 2 of 5
A client informs the nurse that she has difficulty swallowing tablets and struggles with liquid or chewable medications due to taste. What medication should the nurse request a prescription for when preparing to administer Penicillin V to treat the client's streptococcal infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should request a prescription for Nafcillin when preparing to administer Penicillin V to the client with difficulty swallowing tablets. Nafcillin is an injectable form of penicillin that can be given intravenously or intramuscularly, making it suitable for patients who have trouble with oral medications. It is important to note that Nafcillin is not typically used to treat streptococcal infections, but in cases where Penicillin V is indicated and the patient cannot take oral medications, Nafcillin may be a viable alternative. Regarding the other options: - A) Fosfomycin is not a suitable alternative for Penicillin V in treating streptococcal infections. - B) Amoxicillin, while another penicillin antibiotic, is also an oral medication and would not be appropriate for a patient with difficulty swallowing tablets. - D) Cefaclor is a cephalosporin antibiotic, not a penicillin, and is not the best choice for treating a streptococcal infection when Penicillin V is indicated. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of considering patient preferences and needs when selecting medications. Nurses should be aware of alternative dosage forms and routes of administration to ensure effective treatment while accommodating individual patient challenges.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.
Question 4 of 5
A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in treating HIV infection, is known to cause dyslipidemia, particularly elevations in cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Protease inhibitors like Ritonavir can lead to metabolic side effects, including changes in lipid metabolism, which can increase the risk of hyperlipidemia. Option A) Increased TSH level is incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to directly impact thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels. Option B) Decreased ALT level is incorrect as protease inhibitors are more likely to cause elevated liver enzymes rather than decreased levels. Option C) Hypoglycemia is also an incorrect option as Ritonavir is not typically associated with lowering blood sugar levels. Educationally, understanding the side effect profile of medications is crucial for nurses to provide safe and effective care to clients. Monitoring for potential adverse effects, such as hyperlipidemia in this case, allows for early detection and intervention to prevent complications. Nurses must be well-versed in pharmacology to assess, educate, and advocate for their patients' well-being.
Question 5 of 5
A client has a new prescription for Raltegravir. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Raltegravir works by blocking the integrase enzyme, preventing the virus from integrating its genetic material into the host cell's DNA. This action inhibits viral replication within the host cell, making it an essential mechanism of action for managing viral infections.