ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for Vitamin B12 injections. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clients with conditions like pernicious anemia or other causes of vitamin B12 deficiency may require lifelong cyanocobalamin supplementation to prevent deficiency. This is because their bodies are unable to absorb B12 from dietary sources adequately, necessitating ongoing injections to maintain optimal B12 levels.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has been ordered the powdered form of the bile acid sequestrant colestipol. Which of the following does the nurse identify as true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should identify that colestipol should be administered 1 hour before or 4 to 6 hours after any other oral medication. This is because colestipol can interfere with the absorption of other medications due to its binding properties in the gut. Administering it separately from other medications helps to avoid any potential interaction and ensures the effectiveness of both the colestipol and other medications. Additionally, colestipol is typically taken with meals to enhance its tolerability and effectiveness in lowering cholesterol levels.
Question 3 of 5
A patient will be receiving a thrombolytic drug as part of the treatment for acute myocardial infarction. The nurse explains to the patient that this drug is used for which purpose?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thrombolytic drugs, also known as clot busters, are used to dissolve blood clots, specifically in the coronary artery for patients with acute myocardial infarction (heart attack). These medications work by activating the body's natural plasminogen system to break down the clot and restore blood flow to the heart muscle. By helping to dissolve the clot, thrombolytic therapy can help to minimize damage to the heart muscle and improve the patient's outcome following a heart attack. It is crucial for patients to receive this treatment promptly after the onset of symptoms for the best chance of success.
Question 4 of 5
When converting from IV heparin to oral warfarin (Coumadin) therapy, the prescriber monitors which of the following to determine the next appropriate dose of warfarin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When converting from IV heparin to oral warfarin therapy, the prescriber monitors the Prothrombin Time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) to determine the next appropriate dose of warfarin. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and INR helps standardize PT results. These tests are crucial in evaluating and adjusting the dosage of warfarin to achieve the desired anticoagulant effect while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring PT/INR levels regularly is essential to ensure that the patient receives the correct dose of warfarin for their specific condition and to prevent complications. Platelet levels, aPTT, and red blood cell count are not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) in addition to a heparin infusion. The patient asks the nurse why he has to be on two medications. The nurse™s response is based on which rationale?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Heparin is a fast-acting, short-term anticoagulant that is often used to rapidly initiate anticoagulation in situations where immediate blood thinning is necessary, such as in patients with certain medical conditions or undergoing procedures. On the other hand, warfarin (Coumadin) is a slower-acting, longer-term anticoagulant that takes time to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream. By using heparin to start anticoagulation, the patient is protected against clot formation while waiting for the warfarin to reach adequate levels to provide ongoing anticoagulation therapy. This approach minimizes the risk of clot formation during the transition period between medications.