A healthcare professional is assessing a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following findings should the professional expect? Select one that does not apply.

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Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A healthcare professional is assessing a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following findings should the professional expect? Select one that does not apply.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions), compulsive behaviors, and avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions. Delusions of grandeur, which involve inflated beliefs about one's own importance or abilities, are not typically associated with OCD. Therefore, the presence of delusions of grandeur would not be an expected finding in a client with OCD. Choices A, B, and D are all typical features of OCD and would be expected findings during the assessment of a client with this disorder.

Question 2 of 9

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which situation on an inpatient psychiatric unit would require priority intervention by a nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, safety needs are considered fundamental and must be addressed before higher-level needs. When a client exhibits aggressive behavior toward another client, it poses an immediate threat to safety and requires priority intervention by the nurse to ensure the well-being of all individuals involved. Clients who are rude in their complaints (Choice A), express feelings of failure (Choice D), or state that no one cares (Choice C) are addressing higher-level needs related to social interactions, esteem, and self-actualization, respectively, which can be addressed once safety needs are secured.

Question 3 of 9

Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

Question 4 of 9

Which should the healthcare provider recognize as a DSM-5 disorder?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The DSM-5 categorizes mental health disorders for diagnostic purposes. Generalized anxiety disorder is one of the disorders listed in the DSM-5, characterized by persistent and excessive worry about various events or activities. This disorder falls under the category of anxiety disorders, which also include panic disorder, phobias, and others. Choices A, C, and D are not DSM-5 disorders. Obesity and hypertension are medical conditions, while grief, though a significant emotional response, is not classified as a mental health disorder in the DSM-5.

Question 5 of 9

A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who has been prescribed an SSRI. Which SSRI is commonly used for this condition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sertraline. Sertraline, an SSRI, is commonly used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and tolerability. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant used for ADHD and narcolepsy, not for GAD. Lithium is mainly used for bipolar disorder, not for GAD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, not typically used for GAD.

Question 6 of 9

Which is an example of the ego defense mechanism of regression?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development for comfort. In this case, an adult throwing a temper tantrum is regressing to a childlike behavior when faced with not getting their way, which is a form of seeking comfort associated with earlier development. Choices A, B, and C do not exemplify regression. Blaming the teacher, becoming hysterical after a traumatic event, or seeking a partner similar to a beloved father are not instances of reverting to earlier developmental stages to cope with stress or conflict.

Question 7 of 9

Based on what criteria do most cultures label behavior as mental illness?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Incomprehensibility and cultural relativity. Incomprehensibility and cultural relativity are the main criteria used across cultures to define behavior as mental illness. When behavior is incomprehensible and significantly deviates from cultural norms, it is more likely to be classified as a mental illness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Strength of character, ethics, goal directedness, high energy, creativity, and good coping skills are typically associated with positive mental health rather than mental illness.

Question 8 of 9

During a mental status examination, which of the following components should be included in the assessment? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: During a mental status examination, key components to be assessed include the client's appearance and behavior, thought processes, mood and affect, and cognitive function. These components help in evaluating the client's mental health status. The statement about cultural distance and illness treatment is not a part of a mental status examination and is not relevant to the assessment of mental health. Choices A, B, and C are essential components of a mental status examination and contribute to a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's mental well-being.

Question 9 of 9

An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In situations where a client is experiencing severe anxiety and struggles with independent problem-solving, it is essential for the nurse to work through the problem-solving process together with the client. By doing so, the nurse can provide support and guidance to help the client navigate through their challenges effectively. Choice A is not the most appropriate as just encouraging alternative coping mechanisms may not address the root of the problem. Choice B of completing the problem-solving process for the graduate does not promote independence or skill development. Choice D of encouraging the graduate to keep a journal may be helpful but does not directly address the need for assistance in problem-solving during heightened anxiety.

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