ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice B Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a client with major depressive disorder. Which of the following findings should the professional expect? Select one that does not apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In major depressive disorder, common findings include anhedonia (loss of interest or pleasure), hypersomnia (excessive sleepiness), fatigue, and feelings of worthlessness. Flight of ideas, characterized by racing thoughts and rapid speech, is more commonly associated with bipolar disorder, particularly during manic episodes. Therefore, 'Flight of ideas' does not apply to the expected findings in major depressive disorder.
Question 2 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delusions of grandeur. Clients with paranoid schizophrenia often experience delusions of grandeur or persecution, auditory hallucinations, and a flat affect. However, the most characteristic finding for paranoid schizophrenia is the presence of delusions, which are fixed false beliefs that are not based in reality. Delusions of grandeur, where individuals believe they are exceptionally powerful or important, are commonly seen in paranoid schizophrenia. Choice A, auditory hallucinations, are more commonly associated with other types of schizophrenia such as paranoid or disorganized schizophrenia. Choice C, a flat affect, is a symptom that can be seen across various types of schizophrenia. Choice D, disorganized speech, is more indicative of disorganized schizophrenia.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following are therapeutic communication techniques that a healthcare provider can use when interacting with clients? Select one that does not apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Therapeutic communication techniques aim to promote a therapeutic relationship and client well-being. Using noise is a non-therapeutic technique that can hinder effective communication. Offering self, providing reassurance, and using silence are considered therapeutic. However, giving advice is often seen as non-therapeutic as it can diminish client autonomy and hinder problem-solving skills.
Question 4 of 9
A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may be easily overstimulated. Placing the client in a private room to decrease environmental stimuli is the priority intervention. This action can help reduce the risk of exacerbating manic symptoms and promote a calmer environment for the client. Choice A is not the priority as group therapy may be overwhelming during a manic episode. Choice C could potentially increase stimulation rather than decrease it. Choice D should not be the first action as sedatives are generally not the initial intervention for managing manic episodes.
Question 5 of 9
Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following interventions should be implemented for a client with anorexia nervosa? Select one that does not apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Interventions for a client with anorexia nervosa include monitoring daily caloric intake and weight, establishing a structured eating plan, providing liquid supplements as prescribed, and offering rewards for weight gain. However, encouraging the client to exercise is not appropriate as it may exacerbate the condition by increasing caloric expenditure and reinforcing unhealthy behaviors associated with the disorder. Exercise may further contribute to excessive weight loss and worsen the client's physical health in the context of anorexia nervosa.
Question 7 of 9
A client has a history of excessive drinking, which has led to multiple arrests for driving under the influence (DUI). The client states, 'I work hard to provide for my family. I don't see why I can't drink to relax.' The nurse recognizes the use of which defense mechanism?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Rationalization. The client is using rationalization as a defense mechanism by justifying their excessive drinking as a way to relax due to working hard to provide for their family. Rationalization involves creating logical excuses to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors. Projection involves attributing one's unacceptable feelings or thoughts to others. Regression is reverting to an earlier stage of development in the face of unacceptable thoughts or impulses. Sublimation is the channeling of unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.
Question 8 of 9
During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, 'I'm here for my heart, not my head problems.' What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should educate the client about the impact of psychological factors, such as excessive stress, on medical conditions. Understanding this connection is crucial in providing holistic care. It is essential to address both physiological and psychosocial aspects during the assessment to obtain a comprehensive understanding of the client's health status and needs. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't address the importance of psychosocial aspects on medical conditions. Choice B is not the best response as it does not provide valuable information about the connection between psychological factors and medical conditions. Choice D is incorrect because skipping these questions could lead to missing crucial information that may impact the client's overall well-being and treatment plan.
Question 9 of 9
A client has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam (Ativan) can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so the client should avoid driving until they know how the medication affects them. This instruction is crucial for ensuring the client's safety and preventing any potential accidents or harm. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it contradicts the usual recommendation of taking lorazepam with or without food. Choice D is incorrect and dangerous advice as doubling the dose of lorazepam can lead to overdose and serious complications.