ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.
Question 2 of 5
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid consuming foods high in vitamin K. Foods rich in vitamin K, such as leafy greens, can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Therefore, it is important for clients on warfarin therapy to maintain consistent vitamin K intake to keep their INR levels stable. The other options are also important but not the priority in the context of warfarin therapy. Ingesting foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's efficacy, making it crucial to highlight this dietary consideration during client education.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular exercise is an essential component in managing hypertension. Exercising for at least 30 minutes a day, at least 5 days a week, can help control blood pressure. Checking blood pressure regularly (choice A) is important, but not as indicative of understanding the teaching as the commitment to regular exercise. Avoiding foods high in potassium (choice B) is not a typical recommendation for managing hypertension. Taking medication only when feeling dizzy (choice D) is incorrect and potentially dangerous; medications should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider.