ATI RN
Pediatric Clinical Nurse Specialist Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A head-injured 4-year-old patient who opens eyes to painful stimulus, is confused, and withdraws from pain has a Glasgow coma score of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) 10. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess a patient's level of consciousness following a head injury. The scale consists of three components: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Each component is scored, and the total score indicates the severity of the patient's condition. For a 4-year-old patient who opens their eyes to a painful stimulus, is confused, and withdraws from pain, the GCS score would be as follows: - Eye Opening: 2 - Verbal Response: 4 (confused) - Motor Response: 4 (withdraws from pain) Total GCS score: 2 (eye opening) + 4 (verbal response) + 4 (motor response) = 10 Therefore, the correct GCS score for this patient is 10, making option B the correct answer. Option A) 8 is incorrect because the patient in the scenario demonstrated a better motor response than what would align with a GCS score of 8. Options C) 11 and D) 13 are also incorrect as they do not reflect the specific responses described in the scenario. Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially pediatric clinical nurse specialists, as it helps in evaluating and monitoring patients with head injuries. It provides a standardized way to communicate the level of consciousness and neurological status of a patient, aiding in appropriate management and treatment decisions. By accurately interpreting GCS scores, nurses can contribute significantly to the care and outcomes of pediatric patients with head trauma.
Question 2 of 5
The following signs are more in favor of circulatory failure Except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Marked tachypnea with recessions. This is not a sign in favor of circulatory failure but rather a sign of respiratory distress. A) Cyanosis despite supplied O2 is indicative of poor oxygenation even with supplemental oxygen, which is a sign of circulatory failure due to inadequate perfusion. C) Gallop rhythm/murmur may indicate heart failure, which is a manifestation of circulatory failure. D) An enlarged tender liver can be a sign of hepatic congestion due to circulatory failure. Educational context: Understanding the signs and symptoms of circulatory failure is crucial for pediatric clinical nurse specialists to identify and intervene in a timely manner to prevent further deterioration in pediatric patients. Recognizing these signs can help in providing appropriate care and improving patient outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
Shock associated with decreased central venous pressure includes the following Except:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is associated with increased central venous pressure, not decreased central venous pressure. When the heart is unable to pump effectively, central venous pressure increases due to blood backing up in the venous system. Therefore, cardiogenic shock does not fit the criteria of shock associated with decreased central venous pressure. Hypovolemic shock (B), septic shock (C), and distributive shock (D) are all types of shock that can be associated with decreased central venous pressure. - Hypovolemic shock occurs when there is a significant loss of intravascular fluid volume, leading to decreased central venous pressure. - Septic shock is a result of a severe infection causing widespread inflammation and vasodilation, which can lead to decreased central venous pressure. - Distributive shock, such as in cases of anaphylaxis or sepsis, involves abnormal distribution of blood flow leading to decreased central venous pressure. In an educational context, understanding the different types of shock and their associated physiological changes is crucial for pediatric clinical nurse specialists. This knowledge allows for accurate assessment, timely intervention, and effective management of pediatric patients in shock states. Remembering the specific characteristics of each type of shock can aid in making quick and appropriate clinical decisions to optimize patient outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
The cut-off number of transfused blood units to start an iron chelating agent in chronic hemolytic anemia patients is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pediatric patients with chronic hemolytic anemia who require frequent blood transfusions, iron overload can occur due to the accumulation of iron from transfused blood. The correct answer, option B) 8-10 times, indicates the cut-off number of transfused blood units at which an iron chelating agent should be started to prevent iron overload. Option A) 5-7 times is incorrect because starting iron chelation at this lower threshold may delay appropriate management of iron overload in these patients. Option C) 12-15 times and option D) 15-20 times are also incorrect as waiting until a higher number of transfusions before initiating iron chelation can lead to serious complications associated with iron overload, such as organ damage and endocrine dysfunction. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate timing for initiating iron chelation therapy in pediatric patients with chronic hemolytic anemia is crucial for pediatric clinical nurse specialists. This knowledge ensures optimal patient care and helps prevent complications associated with iron overload, emphasizing the importance of evidence-based practice in managing these complex cases.
Question 5 of 5
One of the following is not a screening test for a child with bleeding tendency:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Thrombin time. Thrombin time is not typically used as a screening test for a child with a bleeding tendency. A) Clotting time measures the time it takes for blood to clot, which can indicate certain clotting disorders. B) Bleeding time assesses the duration of bleeding after a standardized skin incision, providing information on platelet function. D) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) evaluates the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, helping to diagnose clotting factor deficiencies. In pediatric clinical practice, screening tests for bleeding tendencies are crucial in identifying children at risk for bleeding disorders. Understanding the specific purpose and interpretation of each test is essential for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of pediatric patients with bleeding issues. Thrombin time is not typically included in routine screening tests for bleeding disorders in children, hence making it the correct answer in this scenario.