A gynaecologist was examining a patient and revealed symptoms of genital tract inflammation. A smear from vagina contains pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front; there is also an undulating membrane. What disease can be suspected?

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Microbiology An Introduction Tortora Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A gynaecologist was examining a patient and revealed symptoms of genital tract inflammation. A smear from vagina contains pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front; there is also an undulating membrane. What disease can be suspected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urogenital trichomoniasis. The presence of pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at their front, and an undulating membrane in a vaginal smear indicates Trichomonas vaginalis, the causative agent of urogenital trichomoniasis. Trichomonas vaginalis is sexually transmitted and causes vaginal discharge, itching, and inflammation. Lambliasis (choice B) is caused by Giardia lamblia, which is not characterized by the described features. Intestinal trichomoniasis (choice C) is caused by a different species, Tritrichomonas foetus, and presents with diarrhea in cattle. Toxoplasmosis (choice D) is caused by Toxoplasma gondii and typically affects the brain and other organs, not the genital tract.

Question 2 of 9

Many diseases of medicinal plants are caused by bacteria of the Pseudomonas genus. Select the bacteria relating to this genus:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blue pus bacillus. Pseudomonas genus includes bacteria that commonly cause diseases in plants. Blue pus bacillus is a common name for Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a well-known bacterium that causes diseases in medicinal plants. Explanation: 1. Blue pus bacillus (Pseudomonas aeruginosa) is a member of the Pseudomonas genus known for causing diseases in plants. 2. Colon bacillus (Escherichia coli) belongs to the Enterobacteriaceae family, not the Pseudomonas genus. 3. Proteus is a genus of the Enterobacteriaceae family, not Pseudomonas. 4. Mycoplasma is a genus of bacteria that lack a cell wall and are not related to the Pseudomonas genus. In summary, the correct answer is A because it is a member of the Pseudomonas genus known for causing diseases in medicinal plants, while

Question 3 of 9

The bacterium that shows swarming on blood agar

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proteus mirabilis. This bacterium shows swarming on blood agar due to its ability to produce flagella and exhibit rapid and coordinated movement. Providencia stuartii and Providencia rettgeri are not known for swarming behavior on blood agar. Morganella morganii can exhibit swarming motility, but it is not as commonly associated with this characteristic compared to Proteus mirabilis, making C the most appropriate choice.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following bacteria are capable of surviving in low-oxygen environments?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor environments by switching between aerobic and anaerobic metabolism. They have the flexibility to use oxygen if present but can also ferment in the absence of oxygen. Obligate anaerobes (A) cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, obligate aerobes (C) require oxygen for survival, and microaerophiles (D) require low levels of oxygen for growth, unlike facultative anaerobes.

Question 5 of 9

A wound swab from a patient with a deep tissue infection revealed Gram-positive rods with terminal spores. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This is because Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive rod bacterium that forms terminal spores. It is commonly associated with deep tissue infections and can cause gas gangrene. Bacillus anthracis (B) causes anthrax and does not typically form spores at the terminal end. Clostridium tetani (C) causes tetanus and Bacillus cereus (D) is more commonly associated with food poisoning. In this case, the presence of terminal spores along with the clinical presentation of a deep tissue infection points towards Clostridium perfringens as the most likely causative agent.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following microorganisms are always in a parasitic form of interaction with the individual?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: viruses. Viruses are always in a parasitic form of interaction with the individual because they cannot survive or reproduce outside of a host cell. They rely on host cells to replicate and cause harm. Non-pathogenic bacteria (choice B) do not always cause harm and can coexist with the individual. Facultative pathogenic bacteria (choice C) can switch between being beneficial and harmful. Therefore, the correct answer is A as viruses always rely on a host for survival and reproduction.

Question 7 of 9

The most common cause of cystitis (after Escherichia coli) in healthy sexually active women is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus saprophyticus. This bacterium is the second most common cause of cystitis in healthy sexually active women after E. coli. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is commonly found in the gastrointestinal and genital areas. It has a unique ability to adhere to uroepithelial cells, making it a common pathogen in urinary tract infections. Proteus mirabilis is more commonly associated with complicated UTIs, especially in catheterized patients. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly seen in hospitalized or immunocompromised patients. Klebsiella pneumoniae is typically associated with UTIs in elderly patients or those with structural abnormalities in the urinary tract.

Question 8 of 9

Adenoviral infections are restricted only to the upper respiratory tract:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Adenoviral infections are not restricted only to the upper respiratory tract; they can also affect the gastrointestinal tract, eyes, and other organs. Adenoviruses are known to cause a wide range of illnesses beyond just respiratory infections. Therefore, option B is correct. Option A is incorrect because it states that adenoviral infections are restricted to the upper respiratory tract, which is not true. Option C is incorrect because there is no circumstance where adenoviral infections are solely limited to the upper respiratory tract. Option D is also incorrect as the correct answer is B.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following pathogenic mechanisms are not typical for autoimmune reactions?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Formation of CD4+ cells. In autoimmune reactions, CD4+ cells are actually involved in the immune response. Here's the rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are helper T cells that play a crucial role in activating other immune cells in autoimmune reactions. 2. Decreased functional activity of T-suppressors (Choice A) is typical in autoimmune reactions as it leads to unchecked immune responses. 3. Loss of tolerance for T-helpers and B-lymphocytes (Choice B) is common in autoimmune reactions, where the immune system mistakenly attacks self-cells. 4. Ag released by normally isolated tissues (Choice C) is a typical mechanism in autoimmune reactions where self-antigens trigger immune responses.

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