A group of Ukrainian tourists returning from Samarqand was bringing with them gerbils. During examination in customs office ulcers were detected on the skin of the animals. What protozoa is the most likely to cause the disease in the animals, if mosquitoes are the carriers?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The presence of ulcers in animals suggests a parasitic infection. 2. Mosquitoes as carriers indicate a protozoan transmitted through insect bites. 3. Among the choices, Plasmodium falciparum causes malaria transmitted by mosquitoes. 4. Leishmania tropica major causes cutaneous leishmaniasis, not ulcers. 5. Balantidium coli causes intestinal infections, not skin ulcers. 6. Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, not skin ulcers.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yeast-like fungi of Candida genus. Candida is a common cause of oral thrush/stomatitis, characterized by mucosal lesions with white coating. The presence of large oval Gram-positive cells is indicative of Candida species. Actinomycetes (B) are filamentous bacteria and not oval Gram-positive cells. Streptococci (C) are spherical bacteria, not oval, and are not commonly associated with stomatitis. Oral spirochetes (D) are spiral-shaped bacteria and not oval Gram-positive cells typically seen in Candida infections. Thus, A is the correct choice based on the characteristic morphology and clinical presentation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: reemerging diseases. Group II category diseases by the NIAID are those that have reemerged or have the potential to reemerge. This classification helps prioritize research and resources. Choice A is incorrect because new foodborne pathogens fall under different categories. Choice B is incorrect as eradicated diseases are not part of the reemerging group. Choice C is incorrect because bioterrorism agents are classified separately. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the purpose of Group II category diseases.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Human papillomavirus. Genital warts are caused by certain strains of HPV, specifically types 6 and 11. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that affects the skin and mucous membranes. HPV is directly linked to the development of genital warts through skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity. Herpes simplex virus 2 causes genital herpes, not genital warts. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) weakens the immune system but does not directly cause genital warts. Human cytomegalovirus (CMV) is not a common cause of genital warts. Therefore, HPV is the correct and most logical choice for the cause of genital warts.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing a bluish-green pigment called pyocyanin, which presents as a cyan pigment. This bacterium is commonly associated with wound infections and is often found in oral surgery complications. Proteus vulgaris (B) and Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) are not typically associated with cyan pigment production, making them less likely causative agents. Bacillus subtilis (C) is not known to produce cyan pigment and is not a common pathogen in wound infections. Therefore, based on the presence of cyan pigment and the clinical context of an oral surgery complication, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most probable causative agent.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adenovirus. Adenovirus commonly causes acute febrile pharyngitis and pharyngoconjunctival fever. Adenovirus is known to cause respiratory infections and can present with symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis. VZV (Varicella-Zoster Virus) causes chickenpox and shingles, not these specific symptoms. Measles virus causes a systemic illness with characteristic rash, not typically pharyngitis. Rubella virus causes a mild febrile illness with rash, but not pharyngitis. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation described, adenovirus is the most likely cause.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C - Immunity): 1. Immunity refers to the body's ability to defend against foreign agents. 2. Homeostasis is the state of steady internal conditions, not specifically related to defense. 3. Infection is the invasion and multiplication of pathogens, not the overall defense mechanism. 4. Commensalism is a symbiotic relationship where one organism benefits without harming the other.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because coagulase helps bacteria like Staphylococcus aureus to form clots, allowing them to evade the host immune response. This mechanism helps the bacteria to hide from the immune system and establish infection. A. Adhesion to surfaces is usually facilitated by other factors like adhesins. B. Breaking down red blood cells is not a function of coagulase. D. Antibiotic resistance is typically mediated by other mechanisms like efflux pumps or enzymatic inactivation, not coagulase.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Beta lactamase. This enzyme is produced by bacteria to break down the beta-lactam ring structure of penicillins, rendering them ineffective. Beta lactam ring (A) is part of the penicillin molecule, not an enzyme. MRSA (B) stands for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, a type of bacteria resistant to certain antibiotics, not an enzyme. Aminoglycoside ring (D) refers to a different class of antibiotics and is not related to penicillin resistance in bacteria.