ATI RN
RN ATI Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about client advocacy by a nurse. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because advocating for a client should not be dependent on the client's ability to ask for it personally. Advocacy is crucial to ensure clients' rights are upheld, especially when they are unable to express their wishes. Choice A is incorrect as intervening in a conflict may not always be advocating for the client's best interests. Choice C is incorrect because the family should not make health care decisions for the client without their input. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the importance of client autonomy and involvement in decision-making.
Question 2 of 5
During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who is receiving nitroprusside for severe hypertension. Which action should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client receiving nitroprusside for severe hypertension is to limit light exposure to the infusion. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, so it should be protected from light exposure to prevent degradation. Administering calcium gluconate at the bedside is not directly related to nitroprusside administration. Monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours is a good practice but is not specifically related to the administration of nitroprusside. Keeping the client on NPO status is not necessary solely based on receiving nitroprusside.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing discharge information for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which resource should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Food exchange lists for meal planning from the American Diabetes Association. Food exchange lists provide structured meal planning for individuals with diabetes, helping them make healthier food choices and manage their condition effectively. Choice A is incorrect because personal blogs may not provide accurate and reliable information on managing diabetes and medications. Choice C is incorrect as diabetes medication information may not be directly related to meal planning and dietary management. Choice D is incorrect because food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine may not specifically cater to the dietary needs and meal planning guidelines recommended for individuals with diabetes.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.