A grandmother brings her 13-year-old grandson to you for evaluation. She noticed last week when he took off his shirt that his breastbone seemed collapsed. He seems embarrassed and tells you that it has been that way for quite a while. He states he has no symptoms from it and he just tries not to take off his shirt in front of anyone. He denies any shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness on exertion. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is in sixth grade and just moved in with his grandmother after his father was deployed to the Middle East. His mother died several years ago in a car accident. He states that he does not smoke and has never touched alcohol. On examination you see a teenage boy appearing his stated age. On visual examination of his chest, you see that the lower portion of the sternum is depressed. Auscultation of the lungs and heart are unremarkable. What disorder of the thorax best describes your findings?

Questions 81

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Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A grandmother brings her 13-year-old grandson to you for evaluation. She noticed last week when he took off his shirt that his breastbone seemed collapsed. He seems embarrassed and tells you that it has been that way for quite a while. He states he has no symptoms from it and he just tries not to take off his shirt in front of anyone. He denies any shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness on exertion. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is in sixth grade and just moved in with his grandmother after his father was deployed to the Middle East. His mother died several years ago in a car accident. He states that he does not smoke and has never touched alcohol. On examination you see a teenage boy appearing his stated age. On visual examination of his chest, you see that the lower portion of the sternum is depressed. Auscultation of the lungs and heart are unremarkable. What disorder of the thorax best describes your findings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Funnel chest (pectus excavatum). Pectus excavatum is characterized by a depressed or sunken appearance of the sternum, which matches the description provided in the case. In this condition, the chest wall is abnormally shaped inward. This can be a congenital condition or develop during growth spurts in adolescence. The lack of symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness on exertion is consistent with pectus excavatum, as these symptoms are not typically associated with this condition. The other choices (A: Barrel chest, C: Pigeon chest, D: Thoracic kyphoscoliosis) do not match the specific findings described in the case and are not associated with the characteristic sternal depression seen in pectus excavatum.

Question 2 of 9

A patient with longstanding COPD was told by another practitioner that his liver was enlarged and this needed to be assessed. Which of the following would be reasonable to do next?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Obtain an ultrasound of the liver. This is the most appropriate next step to assess the patient's enlarged liver in the context of COPD. Ultrasound can provide detailed images of the liver to identify potential causes of enlargement, such as fatty liver disease or liver cirrhosis. Percussing the lower border (Choice A) or measuring the span of the liver (Choice B) may provide some information but are less specific and may not identify the underlying cause. Ordering a hepatitis panel (Choice C) would focus only on viral hepatitis as a potential cause, while an ultrasound can provide a broader evaluation of liver structure and function.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is caring for an older adult who is having difficulty with swallowing. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent aspiration?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide thickened liquids and soft foods. This intervention helps prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of food or liquids entering the airway. Thickened liquids are easier to control while swallowing, decreasing the chance of aspiration. Soft foods are also easier to chew and swallow, further reducing the risk. Choice A is incorrect because eating quickly can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after meals can actually increase the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect as large meals can increase the likelihood of swallowing difficulties and aspiration.

Question 4 of 9

Ms. J, who is 82 years old, complains of urine leakage while playing golf. This has gotten worse over the past year, and she rarely makes it through nine holes without feeling like she needs to “run into the bushes and go.” Leakage is usually small volume, but causes her extreme embarrassment because she is afraid she will smell of urine. She has tried limiting caffeine in the morning before she golfs and avoiding drinking water while playing, to no effect. She also tried “those Kegel exercises” in the past without success. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for Ms. J?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Referral for biofeedback training in pelvic muscle exercise. Biofeedback training helps Ms. J improve her pelvic muscle control, which can address her urinary leakage issue. It is specifically tailored to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can help with urinary incontinence. This option is appropriate for Ms. J as she has already tried Kegel exercises without success. Option A: Bladder training focuses on scheduling toilet trips and gradually increasing the time between trips. It may not be as effective for Ms. J's specific issue with leakage during physical activity. Option C: Solifenacin is a medication for overactive bladder symptoms, which may not be the best approach for Ms. J who has stress urinary incontinence. Option D: Topical estrogen is used for menopausal symptoms and genitourinary atrophy, which may not directly address Ms. J's issue with urinary leakage during physical activity.

Question 5 of 9

A 32-year-old warehouse worker presents for evaluation of low back pain. He notes a sudden onset of pain after lifting a set of boxes that were heavier than usual. He also states that he has numbness and tingling in the left leg. He wants to know if he needs to be off of work. What test should you perform to assess for a herniated disc?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Straight-leg raise. This test is used to assess for herniated disc by stretching the sciatic nerve. A positive test is indicated by reproduction of leg pain when the leg is raised between 30 to 70 degrees. This suggests nerve root irritation, common in herniated disc. A: Leg-length test - This test is used to assess for leg length discrepancy, not herniated disc. C: Tinel's test - This test is used to assess for nerve compression, typically in carpal tunnel syndrome, not specifically for herniated disc. D: Phalen's test - This test is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome, not herniated disc.

Question 6 of 9

A 19-year-old-college student presents to the emergency room with fever, headache, and neck pain/stiffness. She is concerned about the possibility of meningococcal meningitis. Several of her dorm mates have been vaccinated, but she hasn't been. Which of the following physical examination descriptions is most consistent with meningitis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Meningitis typically presents with neck stiffness due to meningeal irritation. In choice C, the patient has a tender neck to palpation and is unable to perform range of motion, indicating meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D all describe a normal head and fundi exam, which is not consistent with meningitis. Choice B mentions muscle spasm and limited range of motion to the right, but this is more suggestive of a musculoskeletal issue rather than meningitis. Choice D describes a normal neck exam, which is not in line with the presentation of meningitis.

Question 7 of 9

A 78-year-old male is being treated for hypertension. The nurse knows that the most appropriate first-line therapy in older adults is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diuretics. In older adults, diuretics are considered the most appropriate first-line therapy for hypertension due to their effectiveness in reducing blood pressure and preventing complications such as heart failure. Diuretics are well-tolerated, have a long history of use, and are cost-effective. They are especially beneficial in older adults with volume overload or fluid retention. Beta-blockers (B) may be less effective in older adults and can have more side effects. ACE inhibitors (C) are commonly used but may pose risks of hyperkalemia and renal dysfunction in older adults. Calcium channel blockers (D) are effective but may increase the risk of falls and fractures in older adults.

Question 8 of 9

Which one of the following is most true about the staffing of a typical nursing home?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Certified Nursing Assistants (CNAs) typically provide the majority of direct patient care in nursing homes. CNAs assist with activities of daily living, monitoring patients' health, and providing emotional support. This is true in most nursing homes as they play a crucial role in patient care. Rationale: - A: Most nurses in nursing homes are not necessarily Registered Nurses (RNs), as there are also Licensed Practical Nurses (LPNs) and Certified Nursing Assistants (CNAs) who provide care. - B: LPNs or LVNs may assist with the patient care plan under the supervision of an RN, but they do not typically develop the plan themselves. - D: Staff turnover is a major issue in nursing homes due to various factors such as workload, stress, and burnout among healthcare workers.

Question 9 of 9

Jacob, a 33-year-old construction worker, complains of a "lump on his back" over his scapula. It has been there for about a year and is getting larger. He says his wife has been able to squeeze out a cheesy-textured substance on occasion. He worries this may be cancer. When gently pinched from the side, a prominent dimple forms in the middle of the mass. What is most likely?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A sebaceous cyst. A sebaceous cyst typically presents as a lump underneath the skin that can be squeezed to release a cheesy substance, consistent with Jacob's description. The formation of a prominent dimple when gently pinched is characteristic of a cyst, indicating it is filled with fluid or semi-solid material. Sebaceous cysts are usually benign and can grow slowly over time. Incorrect choices: A: An enlarged lymph node - Unlikely as lymph nodes are typically not associated with cheesy discharge or the formation of a dimple when pinched. C: An actinic keratosis - Unlikely as actinic keratosis is a precancerous skin condition caused by sun exposure, not presenting with cheesy discharge or a dimple. D: A malignant lesion - Unlikely as malignant lesions usually do not produce cheesy discharge and are more aggressive in growth compared to a sebaceous cyst.

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