ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A grandmother brings her 13-year-old grandson to you for evaluation. She noticed last week when he took off his shirt that his breastbone seemed collapsed. He seems embarrassed and tells you that it has been that way for quite a while. He states he has no symptoms from it and he just tries not to take off his shirt in front of anyone. He denies any shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness on exertion. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is in sixth grade and just moved in with his grandmother after his father was deployed to the Middle East. His mother died several years ago in a car accident. He states that he does not smoke and has never touched alcohol. On examination you see a teenage boy appearing his stated age. On visual examination of his chest, you see that the lower portion of the sternum is depressed. Auscultation of the lungs and heart are unremarkable. What disorder of the thorax best describes your findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Funnel chest (pectus excavatum). Pectus excavatum is characterized by a depressed or sunken appearance of the sternum, which matches the description provided in the case. In this condition, the chest wall is abnormally shaped inward. This can be a congenital condition or develop during growth spurts in adolescence. The lack of symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness on exertion is consistent with pectus excavatum, as these symptoms are not typically associated with this condition. The other choices (A: Barrel chest, C: Pigeon chest, D: Thoracic kyphoscoliosis) do not match the specific findings described in the case and are not associated with the characteristic sternal depression seen in pectus excavatum.
Question 2 of 9
Which one of the following statements is true of Munchausen syndrome by proxy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in Munchausen syndrome by proxy, the patient only exhibits symptoms under the direct care or supervision of the abuser. This is because the abuser intentionally causes or fabricates symptoms in the victim to gain attention or sympathy. In contrast, the other choices are incorrect. A is incorrect because the injury is inflicted by the abuser, not self-inflicted by the patient. C is incorrect as the caregiver is the one perpetrating the abuse. D is incorrect because the abuser is often overly involved and manipulative, rather than inattentive and uncaring.
Question 3 of 9
A 22-year-old architecture major comes to your office, complaining of severe burning with urination, a fever of 101 degrees, and aching all over. She denies any upper respiratory, gastrointestinal, cardiac, or pulmonary symptoms. Her past medical history consists of severe acne. She is currently on an oral contraceptive. She has had no pregnancies or surgeries. She reports one new partner within the last month. She does not smoke but does drink occasionally. Her parents are both in good health. On examination you see a young woman appearing slightly ill. Her temperature is 3 and her pulse and blood pressure are unremarkable. Her head, ears, eyes, nose, throat, cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal nodes shows lymphadenopathy bilaterally. On visualization of the perineum there are more than 10 shallow ulcers along each side of the vulva. Speculum and bimanual examination are unremarkable for findings, although she is very tender at the introitus. Urine analysis has some white blood cells but no red blood cells or bacteria. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. Which disorder of the vulva is most likely in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital herpes. The patient's symptoms of severe burning with urination, fever, lymphadenopathy, and multiple shallow ulcers along the vulva are classic for genital herpes. The new sexual partner and absence of red blood cells or bacteria in the urine support a sexually transmitted infection. The presence of white blood cells in urine and absence of other systemic symptoms help differentiate it from other choices. Condylomata acuminata (choice B) present as warty lesions and do not cause the systemic symptoms described. Syphilitic chancre (choice C) would typically present as a single painless ulcer and is unlikely given the multiple shallow ulcers described. Epidermoid cyst (choice D) does not match the clinical presentation of fever, burning with urination, and lymphadenopathy.
Question 4 of 9
Acute lymphocytic leukemia is usually diagnosed by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A bone marrow examination. Acute lymphocytic leukemia is a type of blood cancer that affects the bone marrow's ability to produce normal blood cells. A bone marrow examination is necessary to confirm the diagnosis by analyzing the bone marrow cells for abnormality. A complete blood count (choice A) can show abnormalities in blood cell counts but cannot confirm leukemia. Magnetic resonance imaging (choice B) and nuclear bone scan (choice C) are imaging tests that can show bone abnormalities but are not specific for diagnosing leukemia.
Question 5 of 9
When evaluating a 17-year-old girl with infrequent menstrual periods, which finding suggests probable hyperandrogenism?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hirsutism. Hirsutism is the presence of excessive hair growth in a male pattern distribution in women, which is a common sign of hyperandrogenism. Elevated androgen levels can lead to hirsutism in women, especially in conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome. High pitch voice (A) and obesity (D) are not direct indicators of hyperandrogenism. While polycystic ovaries (C) can be associated with hyperandrogenism, the presence of hirsutism is a more specific and direct finding in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
Why would a combined hormonal contraceptive be contraindicated in a 36-year-old patient with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, obesity, chronic smoking, and a sedentary lifestyle?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The patient's age (36 years) and chronic smoking are the main reasons why a combined hormonal contraceptive would be contraindicated. Age over 35 and tobacco use increase the risk of cardiovascular complications with hormonal contraceptives. Obesity (choice A), type 2 diabetes (choice B), and a sedentary lifestyle (choice D) are also risk factors, but they are not the primary reasons for contraindicating combined hormonal contraceptives in this case.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following symptoms would be a clinical manifestation noted during the secondary stage of syphilis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. During the secondary stage of syphilis, a rash marked by red or reddish-brown, penny-sized lesions over the palms and soles is a common clinical manifestation. This rash, known as a syphilitic rash, is a hallmark symptom of secondary syphilis. The rash can also appear on other parts of the body. It is important to note that syphilis progresses through distinct stages, and the secondary stage typically occurs a few weeks to a few months after the initial infection. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: A: Absence of symptoms - This is incorrect as syphilis does present symptoms, especially during the secondary stage. B: Single painless lesion, chancre on the genital area - This is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage. D: Poor muscle coordination - This symptom is associated with the late or tertiary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage
Question 8 of 9
Salmeterol (Serevent) in combination with an inhaled steroid is prescribed for a patient with moderate persistent asthma. What is the most important teaching point about salmeterol?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is not effective during an acute asthma attack. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist used for maintenance therapy, not for acute attacks. It does not provide immediate relief. Choices B and C are incorrect because salmeterol's onset of action is not immediate, and it may take days to weeks to achieve full effect. Choice D is incorrect because salmeterol should not be used in children under 12 years old.
Question 9 of 9
A 19-year-old-college student presents to the emergency room with fever, headache, and neck pain/stiffness. She is concerned about the possibility of meningococcal meningitis. Several of her dorm mates have been vaccinated, but she hasn't been. Which of the following physical examination descriptions is most consistent with meningitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Meningitis typically presents with neck stiffness due to meningeal irritation. In choice C, the patient has a tender neck to palpation and is unable to perform range of motion, indicating meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D all describe a normal head and fundi exam, which is not consistent with meningitis. Choice B mentions muscle spasm and limited range of motion to the right, but this is more suggestive of a musculoskeletal issue rather than meningitis. Choice D describes a normal neck exam, which is not in line with the presentation of meningitis.