A Gram-stained smear from a wound revealed Gram-positive rods with terminal spores. The bacteria were anaerobic and produced gas. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is an anaerobic, Gram-positive rod that forms terminal spores and produces gas. It is commonly associated with wound infections and gas gangrene. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism and does not typically present with gas production. Bacillus anthracis is an aerobic, Gram-positive spore-forming bacterium causing anthrax. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus and does not produce gas. Thus, based on the characteristics described in the question, Clostridium perfringens is the most likely causative agent.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because reinfection is indeed possible with rabies virus. Step 1: Reinfection occurs if a person is exposed to the virus again after initial infection. Step 2: Once infected, the virus can remain dormant in the body and become active upon re-exposure. Step 3: Therefore, it is essential to continue preventive measures even after initial immunization. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because antibodies develop within 14-15 days post-immunization, HRIG is administered shortly after exposure, and a specific vaccination schedule is followed for rabies prophylaxis, respectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid) is the sample used for proving epidemic meningitis. It should be transported at 37°C to maintain its integrity. Blood and nasopharyngeal secretions are not typically used for diagnosing meningitis. Choice B, feces, is unrelated to the diagnosis of meningitis. Choice C, CSF transported at +4°C, is incorrect as it should be transported at 37°C to prevent degradation of the sample. Therefore, A is the correct choice for proving epidemic meningitis due to the specificity of the sample and the proper transport conditions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct: 1. Microscopic examination of discharge from infected organ allows direct visualization of bacteria causing the infection. 2. Microscopic examination of urine for organisms can help identify any bacteria present in the urinary tract. 3. Both methods are specific for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as biopsy is invasive and not typically used for diagnosing bacterial infections. - Choice C is incorrect as fecal samples and urine protein tests are not relevant for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system. - Choice D is incorrect as antibody agglutination and coagulation tests are not primary methods for diagnosing bacterial infections in the reproductive system.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C: dermatophytes Rationale: 1. Dermatophytes are fungi that specifically infect the skin, hair, and nails. 2. They are the most common fungi causing such infections in humans. 3. Plasmodium and sporozoites are parasites causing malaria, not skin diseases. 4. Nematodes are a type of roundworm and do not typically cause skin, hair, or nail infections. In summary, dermatophytes are the correct answer because they are specialized fungi that commonly cause skin, hair, and nail diseases, distinguishing them from the other choices.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary function of bacterial capsules is to aid in adhesion and protect against phagocytosis. Capsules help bacteria adhere to surfaces and evade immune system detection by preventing phagocytosis. This is important for bacterial survival and colonization in host organisms. Choice A, protein synthesis, is incorrect as capsules do not directly participate in this process. Choice C, facilitate motility, is incorrect as capsules are not involved in bacterial movement. Choice D, synthesize DNA, is incorrect as capsules do not have a role in DNA synthesis. Thus, the correct answer is B.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is D: Tularemia. Tularemia is a bacterial infection caused by Francisella tularensis. The symptoms described align with tularemia, such as pain in axillary area, fever, shaky gait, coated tongue, frequent pulse, painful lymphatic nodules, and erythematous skin over nodules. The key features pointing towards tularemia are the presence of lymphadenitis in the axillary area and the erythematous, glistering skin over the nodules, which are characteristic of ulceroglandular tularemia. Bubonic plague (A) presents with painful, swollen lymph nodes called buboes but typically lacks the erythematous skin findings. Acute purulent lymphadenitis (B) usually presents with pus-filled lymph nodes but does not typically cause shaky gait or coated tongue. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a term for Hodgkin's lymphoma, which does not

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because live vaccines can potentially revert to a virulent form, although this is extremely rare. This is due to the live attenuated virus in the vaccine potentially mutating back to a more dangerous form. Live vaccines are designed to be weakened but there is a small risk of reversion. Therefore, statement B is not correct. A: This statement is correct as immunocompromised individuals may have adverse reactions to live vaccines due to their weakened immune system. C: This statement is correct as microbes with many serotypes can make it challenging to develop a vaccine that covers all variations. D: This statement is correct as side effects to vaccination, although usually mild and temporary, can occur in some individuals.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is a Gram-positive rod that forms chains and produces gas due to its ability to ferment carbohydrates. It is also spore-forming, which helps it survive harsh conditions. Clostridium perfringens is commonly associated with severe tissue infections and gas gangrene. Choice B: Bacillus anthracis is also a spore-forming Gram-positive rod but is not typically associated with gas production or severe tissue infections. Choice C: Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming bacterium that causes tetanus, not severe tissue infections with gas production. Choice D: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not fit the description provided in the question.