A Gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium was isolated from a wound infection. The bacteria were anaerobic and produced gas. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium that is anaerobic and produces gas. It is commonly associated with wound infections and gas gangrene. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not wound infections. Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, not typically associated with wound infections. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, which does not typically produce gas in wound infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Metronidazole is a synthetic antiprotozoal drug commonly used for wound infection prevention. 2. It is highly effective against Helicobacter pylori, a bacterium that causes stomach ulcers. 3. Metronidazole works by disrupting DNA structure in bacteria, leading to their death. 4. Chingamin (Chloroquine) is an antimalarial drug, not effective against Helicobacter pylori. 5. Doxycycline hydrochloride is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not specifically for H. pylori. 6. Aciclovir is an antiviral drug used for herpes infections, not effective against H. pylori. Summary: Metronidazole is the correct answer as it is specifically effective against H. pylori and commonly used for wound infection prevention. Other choices are incorrect as they target different types of infections.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: III, IV, V. 1. RNA viruses belong to Group III of the Baltimore classification system because their genetic material is single-stranded RNA. 2. They are also categorized under Group IV as they use reverse transcriptase to replicate their genetic material. 3. Finally, RNA viruses fall under Group V as they have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not include all the correct groups that RNA viruses belong to according to the Baltimore classification system.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The lysozyme hydrolyzes the glycoside bonds between the N-acetylmuramic acid and the N-acetylglucosamine in the peptidoglycan of the cell wall. This is because lysozyme is an enzyme that specifically targets the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls, breaking down the structure by cleaving the glycosidic bonds between these two specific sugar molecules. This action weakens the cell wall, leading to bacterial cell lysis. The other choices are incorrect because lysozyme does not target phosphate bonds in phospholipids (B), disulfide bonds in immunoglobulins (C), or hydrogen bonds in bacterial capsules (D).

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because antigenic shift is a major change in the influenza virus where genetic material from different influenza viruses mix to create a new subtype. This is a large-scale change that results in a novel virus with a different antigenic composition. Option A and B are incorrect because antigenic shift does involve the exchange of genetic information between animal and human influenza A viruses, and it does occur when animal or avian influenza viruses of type A directly pass into the human population. Option C is incorrect because antigenic shift is not related to the recirculation of a previously circulating influenza strain.