A Gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium was isolated from a wound infection. The bacteria were anaerobic and produced gas. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is Gram-positive, spore-forming, anaerobic, and produces gas. Clostridium perfringens is commonly associated with wound infections due to its ability to produce gas gangrene. Choice B: Bacillus anthracis is also a Gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium, but it does not typically produce gas in wound infections. Choice C: Clostridium botulinum is a spore-forming, anaerobic bacterium, but it is associated with foodborne botulism rather than wound infections. Choice D: Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming, anaerobic bacterium that causes tetanus, but it does not produce gas in wound infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: after repeated exposure for days. Subacute toxic effects typically manifest after a period of time that is longer than immediate (A) or acute (B) effects but shorter than chronic effects (D). This duration of days aligns with the definition of subacute, which refers to effects that occur gradually over a relatively short time frame. It is important to differentiate between the timing of toxic effects to accurately assess the potential harm caused by a substance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the characteristic time frame associated with subacute toxic effects.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystatin. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically used to treat candida infections. It works by disrupting the cell membrane of the fungus, leading to its death. Penicillin (B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not fungal. Streptomycin (C) is also an antibiotic used for bacterial infections. Isoniazid (D) is used to treat tuberculosis, not candida infections. Therefore, Nystatin is the best choice for treating candida infections due to its antifungal properties.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: serratia spp. This is because serratia spp. are not typically found in the normal skin microflora. Normal skin microflora primarily consist of bacteria such as diphtheroids, alpha-hemolytic streptococci, and epidermidis. Serratia spp. are more commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections rather than being a part of the skin's natural bacterial flora. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are commonly found in the normal skin microflora.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Bacillus anthracis and Clostridium tetani are both spore-forming bacteria. 2. Spores allow them to survive harsh conditions like extreme heat or lack of nutrients. 3. Choice C is correct because both A and B (Bacillus anthracis and Clostridium tetani) produce spores. 4. Choice D is incorrect as both bacteria mentioned are known to produce spores, enabling them to survive in extreme conditions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. Bacillus anthracis is the likely causative agent as it is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium known to cause ulcerated lesions with associated fever and malaise. Anthrax typically presents with these symptoms and fits the description given in the question. Clostridium perfringens (Choice B) causes gas gangrene and typically presents with different symptoms. Clostridium tetani (Choice C) causes tetanus and is not associated with ulcerated lesions. Bacillus cereus (Choice D) is known for causing food poisoning and does not typically present with the symptoms described in the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), because it is known to be resistant to many antibiotics commonly used in hospitals. MRSA poses a significant threat in healthcare settings due to its resistance, making it difficult to treat. Choice B, Escherichia coli, is not typically resistant to antibiotics. Choice C, Salmonella enterica, and Choice D, Vibrio cholerae, are not commonly associated with antibiotic resistance in hospitals. Therefore, A is the correct answer based on its well-documented antibiotic resistance in healthcare settings.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This is because Staphylococcus aureus is Gram-positive, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive, which matches the characteristics described in the question. Staphylococcus epidermidis is also Gram-positive but is coagulase-negative. Streptococcus pneumoniae is Gram-positive but is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis is Gram-positive but is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. Therefore, based on the given information, Staphylococcus aureus is the likely causative agent of the wound infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: gram-positive cocci. Staphylococci and streptococci are both types of bacteria that have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell walls, which retains the crystal violet stain in the Gram staining process, making them appear purple under a microscope, hence classified as gram-positive cocci. Choice B: gram-negative cocci is incorrect as staphylococci and streptococci are not classified as gram-negative bacteria based on their cell wall structure. Choice C: spirochetes is incorrect as spirochetes are spiral-shaped bacteria with unique motility mechanisms, distinct from the spherical shape of cocci. Choice D: anaerobic gram-negative cocci is incorrect as staphylococci and streptococci are not classified as anaerobic bacteria and do not have the typical characteristics of gram-negative cocci.