ATI RN
Genitourinary Review of Systems Questions
Question 1 of 5
A function of the kidney is to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: regulate blood ionic composition. The kidneys help maintain the body's electrolyte balance by regulating the levels of ions such as sodium, potassium, and calcium in the blood. This is crucial for proper nerve and muscle function, pH balance, and overall homeostasis. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: The production of angiotensin is primarily done by the liver and lungs, not the kidneys. B: While the kidneys help filter out waste and toxins, they do not specifically target microorganisms in the blood. C: Removing aged blood from the blood is not a function of the kidneys; this task is mainly carried out by the spleen and liver. In summary, the kidney's main function is to regulate blood ionic composition to maintain overall bodily functions, making choice D the correct answer.
Question 2 of 5
A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she wets herself a little. She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stress incontinence. This is the most likely issue because the patient leaks urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as sneezing or coughing. Stress incontinence is due to weakened pelvic floor muscles and sphincter, leading to leakage with exertion. Dysuria (choice A) is painful urination, not related to leakage. Hematuria (choice C) is blood in urine, not related to leakage. Urge incontinence (choice D) involves a sudden, strong urge to urinate and is not triggered by sneezing or coughing.
Question 3 of 5
A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it aligns with standard medical guidelines. Couples are typically considered infertile after 1 year of trying to conceive without success. This timeframe allows for natural variations in fertility and is when medical intervention is usually recommended. A: Ascertain antibiotic use is not the first step as it may not be directly related to infertility. C: Referring to pelvic inflammatory disease assumes a diagnosis without proper evaluation. D: Incorrect timeline of 3 months and immediate referral to a fertility expert is premature without giving time for natural conception.
Question 4 of 5
When assessing a newborn infant's genitalia, the nurse notices that the genitalia are somewhat engorged. The labia majora are swollen, the clitoris looks large, and the hymen is thick. The vaginal opening is difficult to visualize. The infant's mother states that she is worried about the labia being swollen. The nurse should reply:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Neonatal genital engorgement is a common finding due to maternal hormones. Step 2: Maternal hormones can cause swelling of the labia majora, clitoris, and thickening of the hymen. Step 3: This physiological phenomenon typically resolves within a few weeks post-birth. Step 4: The nurse should reassure the mother that this is a normal finding in newborns. Summary: Choice A is correct because it aligns with the normal physiological process, while the other options suggest unnecessary interventions or monitoring that are not indicated in this situation.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is examining a 40-year-old woman for signs of ovarian cancer. She has a family history of ovarian cancer. Which statement does the nurse know to be true regarding ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ovarian cancer often does not show symptoms until late stages. This is true because ovarian cancer is often asymptomatic in the early stages, making it difficult to detect. By the time symptoms appear, the cancer is usually at an advanced stage. Choice B is incorrect because the Pap smear test is used to detect cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Choice C is incorrect because while some high-risk women may benefit from periodic ultrasound screenings, it is not recommended for all women at high risk. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific annual screening recommendation for ovarian cancer in women over the age of 50.