ATI RN
Fundamentals of Nursing Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A form of cancer therapy wherein a beam of high-energy electromagnetic radiation desires the cancer ceils?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: radiation therapy. Radiation therapy uses high-energy radiation to target and destroy cancer cells while minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissues. It is a localized treatment that is effective in shrinking tumors and preventing cancer cell growth. Surgery (A) involves physically removing the tumor and surrounding tissues, while chemotherapy (C) uses drugs to kill cancer cells throughout the body. Palliative treatment (D) focuses on symptom management and improving quality of life in advanced stages of cancer. In this case, the focus is on a form of cancer therapy involving high-energy electromagnetic radiation, making radiation therapy the most appropriate choice.
Question 2 of 9
A client with advanced liver cancer is scheduled for chemotherapy. As part of the chemotherapy regimen, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil, 5 FU [Fluoroplex]). Fluorouracil is commonly used in chemotherapy for liver cancer to inhibit cancer cell growth. It is a pyrimidine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis. Fluoxymesterone (A) is an androgen used in hormone replacement therapy, not in liver cancer treatment. Tamoxifen (C) is an antiestrogen used in breast cancer treatment, not liver cancer. Megestrol (D) is a progestin used in hormone therapy for breast cancer and endometrial cancer, not liver cancer. Therefore, the correct choice is B as it directly targets cancer cell growth in liver cancer treatment.
Question 3 of 9
The physician prescribes didanosone (ddl [Videx]), 200mg PO every 12 hours, for a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is intolerant to zidovudine (azidothymidine ,AZT [Retrovir]). Which condition in the client’s history warrants cautious of this drug?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peripheral neuropathy. Didanosine (ddl) can cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, which can exacerbate existing neuropathy. The client's history of peripheral neuropathy warrants caution with this drug to prevent further nerve damage. Incorrect choices: B: Hypertension - Didanosine is not contraindicated in hypertension. C: Diabetes mellitus - While monitoring blood sugar levels is important, didanosine does not directly affect diabetes. D: Asthma - Didanosine does not have a significant impact on asthma. In summary, the client's pre-existing peripheral neuropathy makes it important to exercise caution with didanosine to avoid worsening this condition.
Question 4 of 9
Other signs of hypovolemia includes all of the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because decreased pulse rate and widened pulse pressure are not signs of hypovolemia. In hypovolemia, the body tries to compensate by increasing the heart rate and narrowing the pulse pressure to maintain adequate blood flow. A is incorrect as dry mucous membranes and soft eyeballs are signs of dehydration. B is incorrect as increased hematocrit and hemoglobin are indicators of hemoconcentration in hypovolemia. D is incorrect as increased lethargy and confusion can be seen in severe hypovolemia due to poor perfusion of vital organs.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is preparing an IM injection of prednisolone acetate, 30 mg. It is supplied as 50 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse prepare?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the mL needed for the injection, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration of the medication. In this case, 30 mg ÷ 50 mg/mL = 0.6 mL. However, since the nurse should round up to ensure the full dose is administered, the correct answer is 0.7 mL. Choice A is incorrect as it is rounded down. Choice C is incorrect as it is the exact division without rounding up. Choice D is incorrect as it is rounded up too much.
Question 6 of 9
A male client age 78, complaints of dizziness, especially when he stands up after sleeping or sitting. The client also informs the nurse that he periodically experiences nosebleeds and blurred vision. Which of the ff conditions should the nurse assess for the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Postural hypotension. This condition is characterized by a drop in blood pressure upon standing, leading to dizziness. The client's symptoms of dizziness upon standing, along with nosebleeds and blurred vision, are indicative of low blood pressure. Postural hypertension (B) is not a recognized medical condition; White coat hypertension (C) refers to elevated blood pressure readings in a medical setting due to anxiety; White coat hypotension (D) is not a recognized medical condition.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures. In chronic hyperparathyroidism, there is excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased bone resorption and calcium release from bones, causing bone demineralization and weakening. This puts the client at risk for pathologic fractures. Choice B is incorrect because exhaustion is not a direct consequence of chronic hyperparathyroidism. Choice C is incorrect as edema and dry skin are not typical manifestations of hyperparathyroidism. Choice D is incorrect because tetany is more commonly associated with hypocalcemia, which is not a typical finding in hyperparathyroidism.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is using assessment data gathered about a patient and combining critical thinking to develop a nursing diagnosis. What is the nurse doing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diagnostic reasoning. Diagnostic reasoning involves using assessment data and critical thinking skills to develop a nursing diagnosis. This process includes analyzing and interpreting data to make clinical judgments about the patient's health status. A: Assigning clinical cues is incorrect because this refers to identifying and documenting specific observations or findings during the assessment process, not the process of developing a nursing diagnosis. B: Defining characteristics is incorrect because this refers to the specific symptoms or manifestations used to support a nursing diagnosis, not the overall process of diagnostic reasoning. D: Diagnostic labeling is incorrect because this refers to assigning a formal name to the nursing diagnosis, not the process of critically analyzing assessment data to develop it.
Question 9 of 9
What are the essential nursing actions that should be taken for a client with immune system disorder? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is missing from the choices provided. However, for a client with an immune system disorder, essential nursing actions include: E: Educate the client on the importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle, avoiding exposure to infections, and adhering to prescribed medications. This is crucial for managing the immune system disorder effectively. Incorrect choices: A: Following agency guidelines is important but doesn't specifically address the client's immune system disorder. B: Reviewing drug references may be necessary but is not a priority in managing the immune system disorder. C: Advising the client on modifying the home environment is not directly related to managing the immune system disorder. D: Monitoring the client for depression is important but not specific to addressing the immune system disorder.