A finger locked in flexion, especially in the morning, is typical of which condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is A) Trigger finger. Trigger finger, or stenosing tenosynovitis, is a condition where one of the fingers gets stuck in a bent position and then straightens with a snap, like pulling and releasing a trigger. This condition is commonly seen in the morning due to increased swelling and stiffness in the affected finger. Option B) Mallet finger is characterized by the inability to fully extend the fingertip due to a tendon injury at the distal interphalangeal joint, not by locking in flexion. Option C) Jersey finger involves a tendon injury at the distal phalanx due to forcefully extending a flexed finger, leading to difficulty in flexing the finger, not locking it in flexion. Option D) Boutonnière deformity is a condition where there is a central slip injury leading to flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint and hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal joint, which is different from the presentation described in the question. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for healthcare providers assessing patients with hand conditions. Recognizing the specific characteristics of each condition helps in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment, highlighting the importance of clinical assessment skills in healthcare practice.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the nursing process, the step that involves data collection through health history, physical examination, and interview is Assessment, which is option D. This step is crucial as it lays the foundation for the entire care plan. In Assessment, nurses gather comprehensive information about the patient's health status, including past medical history, current symptoms, and objective data obtained through physical examination. This data forms the basis for identifying the patient's health needs and problems. Planning (option A) comes after Assessment and involves setting goals and developing a care plan based on the data collected during the Assessment phase. Diagnosis (option B) follows Assessment and involves analyzing the data to identify the patient's health problems and needs. Evaluation (option C) is the final step of the nursing process, where the nurse assesses the patient's response to the interventions implemented based on the care plan. Understanding the distinction between these steps is crucial for nurses to provide effective and holistic patient care. By mastering the Assessment phase, nurses can accurately identify patient needs and tailor interventions to promote positive health outcomes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of vital signs health assessment, understanding muscle contractions and their impact on force generation is crucial for assessing overall health and physical performance. The correct answer to the question, "Which contraction generates the least force?" is option D) Fast concentric. Fast concentric contractions involve the shortening of a muscle while generating force, such as when lifting a weight quickly. These contractions typically produce less force compared to slow concentric contractions because the speed at which the muscle is contracting limits the force it can generate. Option A) Slow eccentric involves the lengthening of a muscle while generating force, which can actually produce higher forces compared to fast concentric contractions due to the muscle tension during the lengthening phase. Option B) Fast eccentric involves the lengthening of a muscle at a fast pace, and while it can generate significant force, it is not the least forceful contraction as asked in the question. Option C) Slow concentric involves the shortening of a muscle at a slow pace, allowing for greater force production compared to fast concentric contractions. Understanding the different types of contractions and their force generation capabilities is essential in exercise physiology, physical therapy, and overall health assessments to tailor interventions and training programs effectively based on an individual's needs and goals.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) She can see at 20 feet what a normal person could see at 100 feet. This statement reflects the standard way of expressing visual acuity measurements. A visual acuity of 20/100 means that the patient can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 100 feet. This implies that the patient's vision is impaired compared to the normal standard. Option A) She obtains a 20% correct score at 100 feet, is incorrect because visual acuity measurements are not expressed as percentages. Option B) She can accurately name 20% of the letters at 20 feet, is incorrect as it does not align with the standard way of expressing visual acuity. Option D) She can see at 100 feet what a normal person could see at 20 feet, is incorrect as it reverses the relationship between the patient's vision and a person with normal vision. Educationally, understanding visual acuity measurements is crucial for healthcare professionals as it helps in assessing and monitoring patients' vision health. It also aids in determining the appropriate interventions and treatments for individuals with visual impairments. By knowing how to interpret these measurements correctly, healthcare providers can offer better care and support to patients with visual issues.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: It is easy to determine whether the mass is actually in the abdominal wall versus in the abdomen by palpating with the abdominal wall tensed. This can be accomplished by having the patient lift her head off the bed while supine. Usually, abdominal wall masses can be observed, whereas intra-abdominal masses are more concerning.