A few days after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) and successful percutaneous coronary intervention, the patient states, “It was just a little chest pain. As soon as I get out of here, I’m going for my vacation as planned.” Which reply would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer, C, is appropriate because it addresses the patient's unrealistic expectations after a heart attack. It acknowledges the seriousness of the situation and gently suggests that plans may need to be adjusted for health reasons. Choice A doesn't directly address the patient's future plans. Choice B focuses on vacation plans rather than the patient's health. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't address the patient's immediate plans and may not be necessary to state a specific recovery timeline at this point. It's important to prioritize the patient's understanding and acceptance of their condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the Above). Smoking cessation reduces cardiovascular risks. Regular exercise improves heart health. Weight reduction can lower blood pressure and cholesterol levels. Each lifestyle change targets a specific risk factor for coronary artery disease, making all the choices essential for managing the condition effectively. Therefore, selecting all the options is the most comprehensive approach to address the client's coronary artery disease.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that primarily works by lowering heart rate and blood pressure. It does this by relaxing blood vessels and reducing the workload on the heart. It does not directly affect urine output, so choice C is incorrect. While diltiazem may have some impact on urine output indirectly through its effects on blood pressure, it is not a primary effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because diltiazem affects both heart rate and blood pressure, not just blood pressure alone. Choice D is incorrect because while diltiazem does lower heart rate and blood pressure, it does not directly increase urine output.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Check the infant's apical pulse for 1 minute. Before administering digoxin, it is crucial to assess the apical pulse for a full minute to ensure the heart rate is within the appropriate range (usually above 100 bpm in infants). Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the apical pulse is essential to prevent potential adverse effects. A: Taking the infant's blood pressure is not the most appropriate intervention before administering digoxin as the focus should be on assessing the heart rate specifically. B: Checking the infant's respiratory rate is not directly related to the administration of digoxin, and assessing the pulse rate is more relevant. C: Checking the infant's radial pulse is not as accurate as assessing the apical pulse when monitoring for potential digoxin-induced changes in heart rate. In summary, the most appropriate intervention before digoxin administration is to check the infant's apical pulse for 1 minute to

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the metoprolol (Lopressor) and the hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril), hold the captopril (Copoten), and notify the physician. Rationale: 1. Metoprolol and hydrochlorothiazide are commonly prescribed medications for hypertension. 2. Captopril is an ACE inhibitor and should be held due to potential interactions with the other medications. 3. Notifying the physician is crucial to ensure proper management and prevent adverse effects. Summary of other choices: B: Incorrect because holding metoprolol is not recommended as it is a common antihypertensive drug. C: Incorrect because administering all medications without addressing the potential interaction with captopril is unsafe. D: Incorrect because withholding all medications without administering any could lead to uncontrolled hypertension, risking the patient's health.