A female who had been continuously taking antibiotics for an intestinal infection developed a complication manifested by inflammation of the oral mucosa and white deposit. Bacteriological study of the deposit samples revealed yeast fungi Candida albicans. Which of the following medications is indicated for the treatment of this complication?

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Mastering Microbiology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A female who had been continuously taking antibiotics for an intestinal infection developed a complication manifested by inflammation of the oral mucosa and white deposit. Bacteriological study of the deposit samples revealed yeast fungi Candida albicans. Which of the following medications is indicated for the treatment of this complication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A: Fluconazole): Fluconazole is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections caused by Candida albicans. It targets the fungal cell membrane, disrupting its structure and function. This makes it an effective treatment for oral thrush, which is caused by Candida overgrowth in the oral mucosa. The continuous use of antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of microorganisms in the body, leading to fungal overgrowth. Fluconazole specifically targets the yeast fungi without affecting bacteria, making it the appropriate choice for this complication. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Biseptol - Biseptol is an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi like Candida albicans. C: Tetracycline - Tetracycline is also an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi. D: Furazolidone - Furazolidone is an antibiotic primarily used for treating bacterial infections, not fungal infections like oral thrush caused by Candida

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following bacteria are unable to synthesize ATP?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chlamydia. Chlamydia lacks the essential enzymes for ATP synthesis and relies on host cell ATP. Enterococci, Rickettsia, and Staphylococci possess the necessary enzymes for ATP synthesis through cellular respiration. Chlamydia's inability to synthesize ATP makes it dependent on the host cell for energy production, distinguishing it from the other bacteria listed.

Question 3 of 9

A 6-year-old child has duodenal ulcer. What antibacterial drug should be co-administered together with metronidazole and De-Nol in order to eradicate Helicobacter pylori infection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is commonly used in combination therapy with metronidazole and bismuth compounds like De-Nol to eradicate Helicobacter pylori infection in children. Amoxicillin targets the bacterial cell wall synthesis, working synergistically with metronidazole to effectively eradicate the infection. Tetracycline (choice B) is not recommended in children under 8 years old due to potential tooth discoloration. Oleandomycin (choice C) is not commonly used for H. pylori infection. Biseptol (choice D) is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, not typically used for H. pylori eradication.

Question 4 of 9

A dentist examined a 5-year-old boy and found him to have a saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull. Both front maxillary incisors are peg-shaped and have a crescent-shaped notch in the cutting edge. Lymph nodes are not changed. What is the provisional diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Late congenital syphilis. The symptoms described align with late congenital syphilis, which includes saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull, peg-shaped incisors, and notched cutting edge. Lymph nodes not being affected is also consistent with late congenital syphilis. Early congenital syphilis (B) typically presents with more severe symptoms at birth or shortly after. Tertiary syphilis (C) usually occurs years after initial infection and presents with different symptoms. Fluorosis (D) is caused by excessive fluoride intake and does not match the symptoms described.

Question 5 of 9

On the 5th day after a surgery for colon injury a patient complains of bursting pain in the postoperative wound, weakness, drowsiness, headache, fever up to 40oC. Objectively: the skin around the wound is swollen, there is gas crepitation. The wound discharges are scarce foul-smelling, of dark-gray color. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaerobic clostridial wound infection. The symptoms and signs described (bursting pain, weakness, drowsiness, fever, swollen skin, gas crepitation, foul-smelling dark-gray discharge) are classic for gas gangrene, caused by Clostridium perfringens. Gas gangrene is an anaerobic infection that thrives in devitalized tissue, such as postoperative wounds. The gas crepitation is due to gas production by the bacteria. Abscess (B) typically presents with localized swelling and fluctuance, not gas crepitation. Postoperative wound infection (C) may present with redness, warmth, and increased wound discharge but not the specific features mentioned. Erysipelas (D) is a superficial bacterial skin infection, typically caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, presenting with well-defined raised borders and redness.

Question 6 of 9

Penicillin-resistant, beta-lactamase-producing strains must be detected..

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Before antibiotic therapy is begun. Detecting penicillin-resistant, beta-lactamase-producing strains before antibiotic therapy is crucial to ensure proper treatment. If detected after therapy (choice A), it may lead to treatment failure. Detection during therapy (choice C) may result in delayed or ineffective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as early detection is essential for successful management.

Question 7 of 9

When examining a patient presumptively diagnosed with food toxicoinfection, a doctor on duty has detected symptoms characteristic of botulism. The patient named the meals he ate the day before. What is the most probable cause of infection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Homemade canned meat. Botulism is caused by the Clostridium botulinum bacteria, which thrives in low-oxygen environments like improperly canned food. Homemade canned meat poses a higher risk of contamination as it may not have been processed correctly, allowing the bacteria to grow and produce toxins. Custard pastry, sour cream, and strawberries are less likely to cause botulism as they are not typically associated with the bacteria unless improperly handled or stored. Homemade canned meat is the most probable cause based on the characteristic symptoms of botulism and the conditions that favor the growth of Clostridium botulinum in canned food.

Question 8 of 9

Flagellin is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Flagellin is a protein component of bacterial flagella. It is not a carbohydrate, staining method, or an organelle. The correct answer is A because flagellin is a structural protein that forms the flagellar filament. It helps in bacterial motility and pathogenicity. Therefore, the correct choice is A.

Question 9 of 9

By precipitation of tuberculin, a purified protein derivative (PPD) is obtained. It is used in:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mantoux test. The Mantoux test is used to screen for tuberculosis by injecting PPD intradermally. The presence of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction indicates prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The Schick test (B) is used to test for immunity to diphtheria, while the Dick test (C) is used to test for immunity to scarlet fever. Therefore, the correct use of PPD is in the Mantoux test for tuberculosis screening.

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