A female patient who has gone through puberty and started menstruating without any problems has developed cessation of periods after 2 years of normal cycles. Which finding would indicate a possible cause for this occurrence?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Overproduction of androgenic hormones. The cessation of periods after normal cycles can be due to conditions like polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), where there is an excess of androgenic hormones. This can disrupt the menstrual cycle. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Lag in development of secondary sexual characteristics is more indicative of delayed puberty, not cessation of periods after normal cycles. C: Negative pregnancy test only rules out pregnancy as a cause, not addressing the cessation of periods issue. D: Clinical diagnosis of primary amenorrhea refers to the absence of periods by age 16 without prior menstruation, not the cessation of periods after normal cycles.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lubricant. During a Pap test, lubricant should not be used as it can interfere with the cytology sample collection. The speculum is needed to visualize the cervix, the fixative agent is used to preserve the sample, and gloves and eye protectors are essential for safety. Omitting lubricant ensures accurate sample collection for Pap testing, making it the correct choice.

Correct Answer: E

Rationale: The correct answer is missing from the choices provided. For a finding of ASCUS on a Pap smear, the next step would typically be to perform HPV testing to determine if further evaluation or treatment is needed. HPV testing helps to identify high-risk strains of the virus that may lead to cervical cancer. Based on the results of the HPV test, the healthcare provider would decide on the appropriate management plan, which could include colposcopy, repeat Pap smear, or other interventions. Therefore, the correct answer should involve HPV testing or further diagnostic procedures rather than therapeutic treatment options or imaging studies like mammography, bone scan, or transvaginal ultrasound.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chlamydia. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily treated and eradicated with antibiotics. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics prescribed by a healthcare professional. Regular testing and treatment are essential to prevent complications and the spread of the infection. Rationale: - Herpes (A) and AIDS (B) are viral infections that cannot be completely eradicated. Treatment can manage symptoms but not cure the diseases. - Venereal warts (D), caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), can be treated but not eradicated. Recurrence is possible even after treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decrease her consumption of caffeine. Caffeine can exacerbate PMS symptoms such as irritability and breast tenderness. By reducing caffeine intake, the patient may experience a reduction in these symptoms. Choice B is incomplete. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol can worsen PMS symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as decreasing fluid intake is not recommended, as it may lead to dehydration and exacerbate symptoms.