ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A female patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected. Why would the physician order antibiotics be given through the line rather than through a peripheral IV line?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering antibiotics through an infected central venous access device (CVAD) is often done to attempt to sterilize the catheter and salvage it, avoiding the need for removal and replacement. This approach is particularly useful for certain types of infections. While peripheral IV administration may be less painful or reduce infiltration risks, the primary goal in this scenario is to treat the infection directly at the source. Therefore, the correct rationale is to sterilize the catheter.
Question 2 of 5
A female patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected. Why would the physician order antibiotics be given through the line rather than through a peripheral IV line?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering antibiotics through an infected central venous access device (CVAD) is often done to attempt to sterilize the catheter and salvage it, avoiding the need for removal and replacement. This approach is particularly useful for certain types of infections. While peripheral IV administration may be less painful or reduce infiltration risks, the primary goal in this scenario is to treat the infection directly at the source. Therefore, the correct rationale is to sterilize the catheter.
Question 3 of 5
The following drugs may be administered transcutaneously to produce their systemic therapeutic effect:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: GTN patches deliver the drug transdermally, bypassing first-pass metabolism and providing systemic therapeutic action.
Question 4 of 5
Which one of the following is characteristic of both phenytoin and carbamazepine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin and carbamazepine are antiepileptic drugs with a shared mechanism: they stabilize neuronal membranes by preventing sodium influx through fast sodium channels, reducing excitability and controlling seizures, particularly in partial and tonic-clonic types. Both induce hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes, accelerating metabolism of other drugs, not inhibiting it. Phenytoin exhibits zero-order elimination at high doses due to enzyme saturation, while carbamazepine follows first-order kinetics, so this isn't a shared trait. They reduce the efficacy of oral contraceptives by inducing their metabolism, not enhancing them. Safety in pregnancy is questionable, with both linked to teratogenicity (e.g., fetal hydantoin syndrome). The sodium channel blockade is the fundamental property uniting their therapeutic effects, making it the key characteristic they share, critical to their role in epilepsy management.
Question 5 of 5
A patient looks up the drug he is taking in a drug guide. The patient asks the nurse why the physician prescribed a medication that has a lethal dose measure. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lethal dose (e.g., LD50) from research guides safe dosing by showing toxicity thresholds, reassuring the patient it informs, not dictates, prescription. It's not just research trivia-doctors use it indirectly. Side effect watching doesn't explain it. Deferring to the doctor avoids education. Research value ties to safety, clarifying its relevance.