ATI RN
Pharmacology Practice Exam ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A female patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected. Why would the physician order antibiotics be given through the line rather than through a peripheral IV line?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering antibiotics through an infected central venous access device (CVAD) is often done to attempt to sterilize the catheter and salvage it, avoiding the need for removal and replacement. This approach is particularly useful for certain types of infections. While peripheral IV administration may be less painful or reduce infiltration risks, the primary goal in this scenario is to treat the infection directly at the source. Therefore, the correct rationale is to sterilize the catheter.
Question 2 of 5
Haloperidol:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, causes hypotension less than phenothiazines, so that's not its hallmark. It's highly prone to extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) like dystonia due to strong D2 receptor blockade, a true statement. Arrhythmias (e.g., QT prolongation) occur but aren't its primary issue. Antimuscarinic effects are minimal compared to other antipsychotics. Confusion is possible but not its defining toxicity. EPS prominence drives the need for adjunctive anticholinergics in treatment, a key consideration in schizophrenia management.
Question 3 of 5
The newly licensed nurse is preparing to administer a high dose of androgen to the female client. The nurse manager asks for the rationale. What is the best response by the new nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High-dose androgens in females are used palliatively for certain breast cancers, especially hormone-sensitive ones, to suppress estrogen-driven tumor growth, easing symptoms in advanced disease. Athletic performance enhancement via androgens, while feasible, isn't clinically indicated and is illegal in regulated contexts. Brain cancer lacks evidence for androgen treatment, as it doesn't target neurological tumors. Sexual reassignment uses testosterone for masculinization, but high doses in clinical settings typically tie to cancer care, not transition. Breast cancer aligns with a recognized therapeutic use, leveraging androgens' anti-estrogenic effects, making it the most valid clinical rationale here.
Question 4 of 5
A patient looks up the drug he is taking in a drug guide. The patient asks the nurse why the physician prescribed a medication that has a lethal dose measure. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lethal dose (e.g., LD50) from research guides safe dosing by showing toxicity thresholds, reassuring the patient it informs, not dictates, prescription. It's not just research trivia-doctors use it indirectly. Side effect watching doesn't explain it. Deferring to the doctor avoids education. Research value ties to safety, clarifying its relevance.
Question 5 of 5
The patient is receiving escitalopram (Lexapro) for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder. The patient asks the nurse, 'I am just nervous, not depressed. Why am I taking an antidepressant medicine?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Escitalopram, an SSRI, boosts serotonin, easing both anxiety and depression-shared neurochemistry (e.g., limbic dysregulation), per psychiatry. Calling it masked depression assumes unstated symptoms. Doctor's choice plus safety is true but less explanatory. Disorders don't always coexist-serotonin explains use, answering directly.