A female patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. A smear from the vaginal mucous membrane contained big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies; big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were revealed in the smear?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection characterized by inflammation of urogenital tracts. The description of big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies, big nucleus, and undulating membrane matches the morphology of Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas hominis and Trichomonas buccalis are different species that do not cause urogenital infections. Trypanosoma gambiense is a protozoan parasite causing African trypanosomiasis and does not match the described morphology or symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycolic acid. Ziehl-Neelsen method is used to stain acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium species. Mycolic acid in the cell wall of these bacteria resists decolorization, leading to red-colored bacilli on a blue background. Capsule, flagella, and endospores do not play a role in this staining property. Capsules are usually stained using special techniques, flagella are not typically visible with this stain, and endospores are stained using the Schaeffer-Fulton method.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia pestis. Yersinia pestis is the bacterium responsible for causing the plague, specifically the bubonic plague. It is transmitted through fleas and rodents. Escherichia coli (A) is a common gut bacterium, Clostridium difficile (C) causes antibiotic-associated diarrhea, and Staphylococcus aureus (D) is associated with skin infections, but they are not responsible for causing the plague.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rheumatic fever is caused by untreated strep throat. Step 1: Strep throat is caused by Streptococcus bacteria. Step 2: If strep throat is not treated with antibiotics, it may lead to rheumatic fever due to the body's immune response attacking its own tissues. Summary: Gangrene, brucellosis, and tularemia are not associated with rheumatic fever.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of these." Monotrichous bacteria have a single flagellum at one end, amphitrichous have flagella at both ends, and peritrichous have flagella distributed all over the surface. The answer D is correct because it includes all these possibilities based on flagella location. Monotrichous is incorrect as it only refers to a single flagellum, amphitrichous is incorrect as it only refers to flagella at both ends, and peritrichous is incorrect as it only refers to flagella all over the surface. Therefore, the correct answer encompasses all these options.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adhesion to surfaces. Bacterial fimbriae are hair-like appendages that help bacteria attach to surfaces, such as host cells or medical devices. This adhesion is crucial for colonization and infection. DNA replication (B) occurs in the cell's nucleus, not on the surface. Protein synthesis (C) happens inside the cell, not on the fimbriae. Flagella movement (D) is the function of flagella, not fimbriae.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ED50. The time response does not measure the ED50 because ED50 refers to the effective dose needed to produce a response in 50% of the population, which is a dose-related concept, not a time-related one. Peak effect time, onset of response, and threshold level are all time-related measures in pharmacology. Peak effect time is the time taken to reach the maximum response, onset of response is the time taken for the response to start, and threshold level is the minimum dose or concentration required to produce a response. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is the only choice that is not a time-related measure in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery due to its effectiveness against the causative agent, Entamoeba histolytica. 2. Metronidazole has good tissue penetration and is able to reach the site of infection in the gut. 3. It is a bactericidal drug that acts by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite. 4. Metronidazole is well-absorbed orally and has minimal side effects. Summary of other choices: B: Furazolidonum - Not the drug of choice for amebic dysentery. It is primarily used for treating bacterial diarrhea. C: Levomycetin - Not effective against Entamoeba histolytica and not recommended for amebic dysentery. D: Phthalazol - Not commonly used for amebic dysentery treatment. Metronidazole is preferred due

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: the hydrolysis of the four-membered ring present in penicillin. Beta-lactamase enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of the four-membered beta-lactam ring present in penicillin, rendering the antibiotic ineffective against bacterial cell walls. This enzyme breaks the bond in the beta-lactam ring, thus inactivating the antibiotic. Incorrect choices: A: the final cross-linking reaction to form the bacterial cell wall - This is incorrect as beta-lactamase does not participate in the formation of bacterial cell walls. B: the biosynthesis of the penicillin structure from the amino acid valine and cysteine - This is incorrect as beta-lactamase is not involved in the biosynthesis of penicillin. D: the hydrolysis of the acyl side chain from penicillin structures - This is incorrect as beta-lactamase specifically targets the beta-lactam ring, not the