A female patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. A smear from the vaginal mucous membrane contained big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies; big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were revealed in the smear?

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Microbiology Basic and Clinical Principles Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A female patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. A smear from the vaginal mucous membrane contained big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies; big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were revealed in the smear?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection characterized by inflammation of urogenital tracts. The description of big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies, big nucleus, and undulating membrane matches the morphology of Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas hominis and Trichomonas buccalis are different species that do not cause urogenital infections. Trypanosoma gambiense is a protozoan parasite causing African trypanosomiasis and does not match the described morphology or symptoms.

Question 2 of 9

A 30-year-old patient complains about having abdominal pain and diarrhea for five days; body temperature rise up to 37, 5oC along with chills. The day before a patient had been in a forest and drunk from an open water reservoir. Laboratory analyses enabled to make the following diagnosis: amebic dysentery. What is the drug of choice for its treatment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Rationale: 1. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery due to its effectiveness against the causative agent, Entamoeba histolytica. 2. Metronidazole has good tissue penetration and is able to reach the site of infection in the gut. 3. It is a bactericidal drug that acts by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite. 4. Metronidazole is well-absorbed orally and has minimal side effects. Summary of other choices: B: Furazolidonum - Not the drug of choice for amebic dysentery. It is primarily used for treating bacterial diarrhea. C: Levomycetin - Not effective against Entamoeba histolytica and not recommended for amebic dysentery. D: Phthalazol - Not commonly used for amebic dysentery treatment. Metronidazole is preferred due

Question 3 of 9

For infections caused by coronaviruses is NOT true that;

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer choice D is correct: 1. Coronaviruses can cause reinfections due to potential waning immunity. 2. Studies have shown cases of reinfections with different strains or within a short period. 3. This contradicts the notion that reinfections cannot be observed. Summary: A: Incorrect because some coronaviruses can cause lower respiratory tract infections. B: Incorrect as coronaviruses can exhibit varied symptomatology including asymptomatic cases. C: Incorrect as some coronaviruses like SARS can lead to severe pneumonia and complications.

Question 4 of 9

Formic acid is a fermentation product of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Formic acid is produced during fermentation by Actinomyces. Step 2: Actinomyces are known to produce organic acids like formic acid through fermentation. Step 3: Other choices like Streptococcus, Klebsiella, and Clostridium are not typically associated with formic acid production. Step 4: Actinomyces is the most likely candidate based on its fermentation capabilities. Summary: Actinomyces is the correct answer because it is known to produce formic acid during fermentation, while the other choices lack this specific metabolic function.

Question 5 of 9

A lymph node punctate of a patient with suspected protozoa disease was examined. Examination of the stained specimen (Romanovsky's stain) revealed some crescent bodies with pointed end, blue cytoplasm and red nucleus. What protozoan were revealed in the smears?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malarial plasmodiums. The description of crescent bodies with a pointed end, blue cytoplasm, and red nucleus corresponds to the characteristics of Plasmodium species seen in Romanovsky's stain. Plasmodium species are known to cause malaria and have distinct features like the ones described. Incorrect choices: A: Toxoplasmas - Toxoplasma gondii typically appear as tachyzoites or bradyzoites under staining, not crescent bodies. C: Dermotropic leishmania - Leishmania species appear as amastigotes in tissue smears, not crescent bodies. D: Viscerotropic leishmania - Similar to choice C, Leishmania species do not typically present as crescent bodies in stained specimens.

Question 6 of 9

Immunity after single vaccination against tetanus - application of tetanus toxoid is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immunity after a single tetanus vaccination is of limited duration, usually around 10 years. Booster vaccinations are needed to maintain protection due to waning immunity over time. Choice A is incorrect as immunity is not usually lifelong. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid is a sterile vaccine and does not cause infection. Choice D is also incorrect as there is a correct answer, which is B.

Question 7 of 9

Patients after splenectomy are of high risk of infections caused by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: After a splenectomy, patients are at high risk of infections caused by encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Salmonella. The spleen plays a crucial role in the immune response against encapsulated bacteria, and its absence increases susceptibility to these specific pathogens. Therefore, all choices are correct as patients are at risk of infections from all three types of bacteria mentioned.

Question 8 of 9

A 45-year-old patient, a sailor, was hospitalized on the 2nd day of the disease. A week ago he returned from India. Complains of body temperature of 41oC, severe headache, dyspnea, cough with frothy rusty sputum. Objectively: the patient is pale, mucous membranes are cyanotic, breathing rate - 24/min, tachycardia is present. In lungs: diminished breath sounds, moist rales over both lungs, crepitation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Pneumonic plague. The patient's symptoms align with the presentation of pneumonic plague, caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis. Symptoms include high fever, severe headache, dyspnea, cough with bloody sputum, and cyanosis. The characteristic bubonic plague lymphadenopathy may be absent in the pneumonic form. The patient's recent travel history to India also raises suspicion, as plague is endemic in some regions. The other choices can be ruled out based on the patient's symptoms and presentation. Miliary tuberculosis typically presents with diffuse miliary nodules on imaging. Influenza typically presents with more generalized symptoms and does not usually cause rusty sputum. Ornithosis is caused by Chlamydophila psittaci and usually presents with pneumonia-like symptoms after exposure to infected birds.

Question 9 of 9

Name the halogen-containing antiseptic with fungicidal properties, which is used to treat dermatomycosis:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Iodine solution contains iodine, a halogen with antiseptic properties. 2. Iodine is effective against fungi, making it suitable for treating dermatomycosis. 3. Iodine solution is commonly used in dermatology for its fungicidal properties. 4. Formalin, methylene blue, and brilliant green do not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties. Summary: - Formalin is a disinfectant, not an antiseptic for dermatomycosis. - Methylene blue is an antifungal dye, not used as an antiseptic. - Brilliant green is an antiseptic, but does not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties.

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