A female patient consulted a doctor about a sense of epigastric discomfort, nausea and anorexia. A duodenal content analysis revealed lamblia. What drug should be prescribed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating Giardiasis caused by Giardia lamblia, which presents with symptoms such as epigastric discomfort, nausea, and anorexia. Metronidazole effectively targets and eliminates the parasite. Chingamin, Rifampicin, Isoniazid, and Acyclovir are not effective against Giardia lamblia and are used to treat other infections caused by different pathogens. Therefore, Metronidazole is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gram-negative bacterial outer membrane. Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) are major components of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria. LPS consist of lipid A, core oligosaccharide, and O-antigen. They play a crucial role in the structural integrity and protection of Gram-negative bacteria. Choice A (Gram-positive bacteria) is incorrect because LPS are not present in Gram-positive bacteria. Choice B (Fungal cell walls) is incorrect as LPS are specific to bacterial outer membranes. Choice D (Viral capsids) is incorrect as LPS are not associated with viral structures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida fungi. In the context of a 70-year-old man with angular cheilitis (lesion at the corners of the mouth) and stomatitis, the presence of large ovoid gram-positive cells points towards Candida species, which are yeast fungi. Candida is a common opportunistic pathogen that can cause oral thrush and angular cheilitis in immunocompromised individuals, such as elderly people. Candida fungi are known to appear as large ovoid cells under microscopic examination. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are gram-positive bacteria and are not typically associated with large ovoid cells seen in this case. C: Staphylococci are also gram-positive bacteria and are not known to present as large ovoid cells in this context. D: Neisseria are gram-negative bacteria and are not the usual etiological agents for oral lesions like angular cheilitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoa that causes the sexually transmitted infection trichomoniasis. The presence of an undulating membrane in vaginal discharge samples is characteristic of Trichomonas vaginalis. Giardia lamblia causes gastrointestinal illness, not vaginal infections. Trypanosoma brucei causes African sleeping sickness transmitted by tsetse flies. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis transmitted by sandflies.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This is because Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive cocci in chains bacterium that is catalase-negative, making it the most likely causative agent in this scenario. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common pathogen causing bacterial endocarditis. Summary of other choices: B: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium but is catalase-positive, so it is unlikely in this case. C: Enterococcus faecalis is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium, but it is catalase-negative, which is not consistent with the given information. D: Micrococcus luteus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium but is catalase-positive, making it an unlikely causative agent.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why C is correct: 1. Immunomodulators regulate the immune response. 2. Gamma-interferon is a cytokine that enhances immune function. 3. It helps fight infections and regulate inflammation. 4. Pentaxim and Hexacima are combination vaccines. 5. Rifampin is an antibiotic, not an immunomodulator. Summary: - A and B are combination vaccines. - D is an antibiotic. - C is the correct answer as gamma-interferon is an immunomodulator that regulates the immune response.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Chlorhexidine belongs to the group of biguanides, which are commonly used for disinfecting hands, skin, and mucous membranes. Step 2: It is known to have broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity against various pathogens. Step 3: The usage of chlorhexidine in healthcare settings for preoperative skin preparation and surgical hand scrub is well-established. Step 4: The effectiveness and safety profile of chlorhexidine make it a preferred choice for disinfection purposes. Summary: - Option A is incorrect as chlorhexidine is not characterized by strong human toxicity. - Option B is incorrect as chlorhexidine is not classified as an alcohol and is primarily used for disinfecting hands, skin, and mucous membranes. - Option D is incorrect as chlorhexidine has a wide range of applications in disinfection, especially in healthcare settings.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D (Clostridium difficile) Rationale: 1. Clostridium difficile is primarily associated with gastrointestinal infections, particularly antibiotic-associated colitis. 2. Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium perfringens, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are commonly associated with skin infections. 3. Staphylococcus aureus can cause impetigo, boils, and cellulitis. 4. Clostridium perfringens can cause gas gangrene. 5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause hot tub folliculitis and swimmer's ear.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protection against phagocytosis. The bacterial capsule is a protective layer outside the cell wall that helps bacteria evade phagocytosis by the host immune system. It acts as a physical barrier against immune cells like macrophages and neutrophils, allowing the bacteria to survive and multiply in the host. Energy production (A), DNA replication (C), and protein synthesis (D) are essential cellular functions but are not directly associated with the major function of the bacterial capsule, which is protection against phagocytosis.