A female patient consulted a doctor about a sense of epigastric discomfort, nausea and anorexia. A duodenal content analysis revealed lamblia. What drug should be prescribed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating Giardiasis caused by Giardia lamblia, which presents with symptoms such as epigastric discomfort, nausea, and anorexia. Metronidazole effectively targets and eliminates the parasite. Chingamin, Rifampicin, Isoniazid, and Acyclovir are not effective against Giardia lamblia and are used to treat other infections caused by different pathogens. Therefore, Metronidazole is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helicobacter pylori. Group I organisms are classified based on their low infectious doses and potential for bioterrorism. H. pylori is known to cause gastric ulcers and is categorized as a Group I organism due to its ability to cause disease at low doses. A: Francisella tularensis is a Group A bioterrorism agent, not Group I. B: Clostridium difficile is not typically classified as a Group I organism. D: Bacillus anthracis is a Group A bioterrorism agent, not Group I.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transduction. In bacterial genetics, transduction refers to the process of DNA transfer from one bacterium to another via bacteriophages. During transduction, the bacteriophage infects a bacterium, incorporating bacterial DNA into its own genome, which is then transferred to another bacterium upon infecting it. Rationale: A: Transfection is the process of introducing foreign DNA into eukaryotic cells, not bacteria. C: Induction is the process of activating gene expression in a cell. D: Infection is a general term for the invasion of pathogens into a host organism, not specific to DNA transfer via phages in bacteria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The polysaccharide capsule. The capsule of Neisseria meningitidis plays a crucial role in its virulence by preventing phagocytosis, allowing the bacteria to evade the host's immune system. This leads to increased survival and colonization in the host. Choice B: The beta lactamase is incorrect because it is an enzyme that breaks down beta-lactam antibiotics and does not directly contribute to the virulence of Neisseria meningitidis. Choice C: The erythrogenic toxin is incorrect as this toxin is produced by Streptococcus pyogenes, not Neisseria meningitidis. Choice D: None of the above is incorrect as the polysaccharide capsule is indeed a key virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli typically produces red colonies on Endo agar due to its ability to ferment lactose. This results in the production of acid, causing the colonies to appear red. Salmonella and Shigella are non-lactose fermenters, so they would appear colorless or transparent on Endo agar. Proteus vulgaris is not commonly associated with red colonies on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the characteristic lactose fermentation pattern, E. coli is the most likely microorganism in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram staining method. The rationale is as follows: 1. Gentian violet is a primary stain used in the Gram staining procedure to stain the bacterial cells. 2. Lugol's solution is a mordant that helps to fix the crystal violet stain in Gram-positive bacteria. 3. 95% alcohol is used as a decolorizing agent in the Gram staining process to remove the stain from Gram-negative bacteria. 4. Watermagenta is not a standard reagent in the Gram staining method. Therefore, based on the reagents mentioned, the staining method applied in this case is the Gram staining method. Other choices are incorrect: B: Ziehl-Nielsen's - This staining method is used for acid-fast staining, not for lobar pneumonia. C: Romanovsky - This staining method is used for blood smears, not for bacterial staining in pneumonia. D: Neisser - This staining method is not commonly used in routine bacterial staining procedures.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three viruses, Vaccinia virus, Smallpox virus, and Cowpox virus, belong to the genus Orthopoxvirus. They share similar characteristics and genetic makeup. Vaccinia virus is used as a vaccine against smallpox, Smallpox virus causes smallpox disease, and Cowpox virus can infect both animals and humans. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these viruses is a member of the Orthopoxvirus genus.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D (Clostridium difficile) Rationale: 1. Clostridium difficile is primarily associated with gastrointestinal infections, particularly antibiotic-associated colitis. 2. Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium perfringens, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are commonly associated with skin infections. 3. Staphylococcus aureus can cause impetigo, boils, and cellulitis. 4. Clostridium perfringens can cause gas gangrene. 5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause hot tub folliculitis and swimmer's ear.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Erysipelas. Erysipelas is a type of acute infection caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria. This bacteria infects the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics, leading to a distinct raised, well-demarcated, erythematous skin lesion. The other choices are incorrect because: A Carbuncle is a deep skin infection involving hair follicles, B Impetigo is a superficial skin infection caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus bacteria, and D Acne is a chronic inflammatory skin condition not typically caused by group A Streptococcus.