A female patient consulted a doctor about a sense of epigastric discomfort, nausea and anorexia. A duodenal content analysis revealed lamblia. What drug should be prescribed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating Giardiasis caused by Giardia lamblia, which presents with symptoms such as epigastric discomfort, nausea, and anorexia. Metronidazole effectively targets and eliminates the parasite. Chingamin, Rifampicin, Isoniazid, and Acyclovir are not effective against Giardia lamblia and are used to treat other infections caused by different pathogens. Therefore, Metronidazole is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus or Streptococcus. 2. Catalase-positive and coagulase-positive narrow it down to Staphylococcus. 3. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Therefore, the likely causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: A: Correct - Staphylococcus aureus fits all the characteristics. B: Incorrect - Staphylococcus epidermidis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. C: Incorrect - Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative. D: Incorrect - Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoa that causes the sexually transmitted infection trichomoniasis. The presence of an undulating membrane in vaginal discharge samples is characteristic of Trichomonas vaginalis. Giardia lamblia causes gastrointestinal illness, not vaginal infections. Trypanosoma brucei causes African sleeping sickness transmitted by tsetse flies. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis transmitted by sandflies.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: thimerosal. Thimerosal is a mercury-containing compound used as a preservative in vaccines. It helps prevent contamination and growth of bacteria and fungi in multi-dose vials. Choice A, analgesic, refers to pain relievers, not preservatives. Choice B, EDTA, is a chelating agent used to bind metal ions and is not a preservative. Choice C, codeine, is an opioid pain medication and not a preservative used in vaccines. Thimerosal is the correct answer as it specifically fits the description of a mercury-containing compound used in vaccines.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida fungi. In the context of a 70-year-old man with angular cheilitis (lesion at the corners of the mouth) and stomatitis, the presence of large ovoid gram-positive cells points towards Candida species, which are yeast fungi. Candida is a common opportunistic pathogen that can cause oral thrush and angular cheilitis in immunocompromised individuals, such as elderly people. Candida fungi are known to appear as large ovoid cells under microscopic examination. Summary of other choices: B: Streptococci are gram-positive bacteria and are not typically associated with large ovoid cells seen in this case. C: Staphylococci are also gram-positive bacteria and are not known to present as large ovoid cells in this context. D: Neisseria are gram-negative bacteria and are not the usual etiological agents for oral lesions like angular cheilitis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: EBV. Osteomyelitis is primarily caused by bacteria, not viruses like Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The main pathogens involved in osteomyelitis are typically Staphylococcus aureus, including Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), Haemophilus influenzae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. EBV is not a causative agent of osteomyelitis. It is crucial to differentiate between bacterial and viral etiologies in infectious diseases to guide appropriate treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a flagellated protozoan with two nuclei, known as the "falling leaf" appearance. It causes diarrhea in humans through ingestion of contaminated water or food. Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebic dysentery, characterized by bloody diarrhea and colitis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted protozoan causing vaginal discharge but is not found in stool. Balantidium coli is a ciliated protozoan causing diarrhea but does not have flagellated forms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: pinocytosis. This is an active transport mechanism where cells engulf fluids or solutes through vesicles. Energy is required to transport substances against a concentration gradient. A is incorrect as pinocytosis is an active process, not passive like pinocytosis. B is incorrect as facilitated diffusion is a passive process that uses carrier proteins to move substances down a concentration gradient. C is incorrect as filtration is a passive process that relies on pressure gradients to move substances across a barrier. Therefore, D is the correct choice as it involves the active transport of substances into the cell.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: phialospores. Phialospores are conidiospores that bud off from a vase-shaped spore-bearing cell called a phialide. This structure is characteristic of fungi in the genus Penicillium. Arthrospores (A) are formed by the fragmentation of hyphae, porospores (B) are not a recognized term in mycology, and blastospores (D) are produced by budding from yeast cells. Therefore, C is the correct choice based on the specific description provided in the question.