ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A female client recovers from a serious case of insect bites. What skin related advice must the nurse give to the client and all her family members to prevent the recurrence of the ailment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply insect repellent to clothing and exposed skin. This advice helps prevent insect bites, reducing the risk of recurrence. Insect repellent creates a barrier against insects, hence minimizing the chances of getting bitten. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address the prevention of insect bites. Choice A is vague and does not provide a specific preventive measure. Choice C is incorrect as thick woollen clothing may not necessarily prevent insect bites. Choice D, sunscreen lotion, protects against UV rays, not insect bites.
Question 2 of 9
Mr. Reyes is extremely confused. The nurse provide new information slowly and in small amounts because;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When someone is extremely confused, providing new information slowly and in small amounts can help prevent overwhelming stress and further confusion. This approach allows the individual to process information more effectively and reduces the risk of escalating confusion or delirium as a defense mechanism. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because destruction of brain cells, teaching progression, and giving minimal information are not directly related to managing confusion in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
The patient is being discharged on furosemide (Lasix). The nurse evaluates the patient as understanding her medication teaching if she states that she will have which of the ff. laboratory tests monitored as ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will have my potassium level checked." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. A: Monitoring urine sodium is not typically necessary for furosemide therapy. B: Prothrombin time monitoring is unrelated to furosemide therapy. C: Monitoring calcium levels is not directly affected by furosemide use. In summary, monitoring potassium levels is essential due to the potential for hypokalemia with furosemide, while the other options are not directly relevant to this medication.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse expects to note an elevated serum glucose level in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketonic syndrome (HHNS). Which other laboratory finding should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: In HHNS, there is severe hyperglycemia leading to osmotic diuresis. Step 2: Osmotic diuresis causes loss of potassium in urine, leading to hypokalemia. Step 3: Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in HHNS due to excessive urinary loss of potassium. Step 4: Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a below-normal serum potassium level in a client with HHNS. Summary: A: Elevated serum acetone level is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS. B: Serum alkalosis is not typically associated with HHNS. C: Serum ketone bodies are elevated in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS.
Question 5 of 9
A patient asks the nurse what side effects to expect from a muscle relaxant medication that has been prescribed. Which of the ff. side effects should the nurse relate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Drowsiness. Muscle relaxants can cause drowsiness as a common side effect due to their sedative properties. This can impair alertness and coordination, so it's crucial for the patient to be aware of this potential effect. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not typically associated with muscle relaxants. Choice C, hypotension, is more commonly linked to medications like antihypertensives. Choice D, dyspnea, which is difficulty breathing, is not a common side effect of muscle relaxants. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on educating the patient about the potential side effect of drowsiness.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.
Question 7 of 9
JR is admitted to the medical-surgical unit because of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome. What is the hallmark of this syndrome?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The hallmark of nephritic syndrome is edema due to proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia. Protein loss in urine causes decreased colloid osmotic pressure, leading to fluid leaking into tissues, causing edema. Osmotic diuresis (A) is unrelated to nephritic syndrome. Hypolipidemia (B) and hyperproteinemia (D) are not characteristic of nephritic syndrome.
Question 8 of 9
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50. 2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland. 3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment. 4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer. 5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. 6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse do next?
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems. Rationale: 1. Asking about chief concerns helps to focus the interview on the patient's needs. 2. It demonstrates active listening and empathy. 3. Allows the nurse to prioritize issues and provide appropriate care. 4. Introductions are already done, and ending the interview abruptly or mentioning medication timing is not patient-centered.