ATI RN
Mental Health Nursing ATI Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A female client has been admitted to the inpatient psychiatric facility with a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder after a history of violence by her boyfriend. During the initial assessment interview, which assessment would be the priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Suicide risk. This is the priority assessment because individuals with posttraumatic stress disorder, especially those who have experienced violence, are at increased risk for suicidal ideation and behaviors. Assessing suicide risk is crucial for ensuring the client's safety and implementing appropriate interventions. Nutritional status (A), hydration status (B), and sleep patterns (C) are also important assessments, but in this case, addressing the immediate risk of suicide takes precedence in order to prevent harm to the client.
Question 2 of 5
Pedophilic disorder is the most common paraphilic disorder where adults who have a primary or exclusive sexual preference for prepubescent children. A subset of this disorder is termed hebephilia and is defined as attraction to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pubescent individuals. Hebephilia is a paraphilic disorder characterized by a primary or exclusive sexual interest in individuals who are in the early stages of puberty, typically around the ages of 11 to 14. This is different from pedophilic disorder, which involves a sexual preference for prepubescent children. Choice A (Infants) is incorrect as infants are prepubescent. Choice C (Teens between the ages of 15 and 19) is incorrect as these individuals are typically considered adolescents rather than pubescent. Choice D (Males only) is incorrect as hebephilia can occur in individuals of any gender.
Question 3 of 5
After teaching a class about the biochemical theories associated with panic disorder, the instructor determines a need for additional teaching when the students identify which neurotransmitter as being implicated?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dopamine. In the context of panic disorder, serotonin and norepinephrine are typically implicated due to their roles in regulating mood and anxiety. GABA is involved in inhibiting neurotransmission, thus helping to reduce anxiety. Dopamine, however, is not directly associated with panic disorder and its dysregulation is more commonly linked to disorders like schizophrenia and Parkinson's disease. Therefore, if students identify dopamine as being implicated in panic disorder, it indicates a need for additional teaching to correct this misconception and emphasize the roles of serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA instead.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Oliguria) Rationale: 1. Oliguria (decreased urine output) is a classic sign of decreased cardiac output due to poor perfusion to the kidneys. 2. Decreased cardiac output results in reduced blood flow to the kidneys, leading to decreased urine production. 3. Shivering is a common postoperative response, not directly related to cardiac output. 4. Bradypnea (slow breathing) and constricted pupils are not typical signs of decreased cardiac output.
Question 5 of 5
What is a cause of pseudodementia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: severe depression. Pseudodementia refers to cognitive symptoms that mimic dementia but are actually caused by a psychiatric disorder like severe depression. This condition can be reversed with appropriate treatment for the underlying depression. Medication reaction (choice A) can cause cognitive impairment but is not specific to pseudodementia. Old age (choice C) is not a direct cause of pseudodementia. Genetics (choice D) may play a role in some forms of dementia but not in pseudodementia caused by severe depression.