ATI RN
microbiology a systems approach test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A fecal smear from a patient with chronic diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoan parasite causes amoebic dysentery and is characterized by cysts with four nuclei in fecal smears. It is commonly associated with chronic diarrhea. Balantidium coli (B) presents with large ciliated trophozoites, not cysts. Giardia lamblia (C) has trophozoites with flagella and causes giardiasis, not cysts with four nuclei. Trichomonas hominis (D) typically has a pear-shaped trophozoite and is not associated with cysts with four nuclei.
Question 2 of 9
A wound infection culture grew Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the likely microorganism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, along with being catalase-positive and coagulase-negative, is indicative of Staphylococcus species. Staphylococcus epidermidis is commonly found on the skin, making it likely to cause wound infections. Summary: B: Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. C: Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. D: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative.
Question 3 of 9
Which type of bacteria is responsible for causing tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the bacteria responsible for causing tuberculosis. This bacterium has unique cell wall components that make it resistant to the body's immune defenses, allowing it to survive and multiply within the host. Streptococcus pyogenes (Choice A), Escherichia coli (Choice C), and Bacillus anthracis (Choice D) are not associated with tuberculosis. Streptococcus pyogenes is known for causing strep throat and skin infections, Escherichia coli is commonly involved in gastrointestinal infections, and Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is true regarding gonorrhea symptoms in men?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10% of the infected men have no symptoms. This is true because gonorrhea can be asymptomatic in some individuals, leading to undiagnosed cases. Testicular pain and epididymal tenderness (choice A) are not typical symptoms of gonorrhea in men. Painful urination (choice B) may or may not be present. Purulent discharge (choice D) is a common symptom but not always present. Therefore, choice C is the most accurate statement regarding gonorrhea symptoms in men.
Question 5 of 9
A group of Ukrainian tourists returning from Samarqand was bringing with them gerbils. During examination in customs office ulcers were detected on the skin of the animals. What protozoa is the most likely to cause the disease in the animals, if mosquitoes are the carriers?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. The presence of ulcers in animals suggests a parasitic infection. 2. Mosquitoes as carriers indicate a protozoan transmitted through insect bites. 3. Among the choices, Plasmodium falciparum causes malaria transmitted by mosquitoes. 4. Leishmania tropica major causes cutaneous leishmaniasis, not ulcers. 5. Balantidium coli causes intestinal infections, not skin ulcers. 6. Trypanosoma cruzi causes Chagas disease, not skin ulcers.
Question 6 of 9
A patient complains of acute spastic abdominal pain, frequent urge to defecate, liquid bloody feces with mucus. Laboratory analysis of fecal smear revealed inconstant in shape organisms with erythrocyte. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amebiasis. Amebiasis is caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, presenting with symptoms like acute abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea with mucus, and inconstant shape organisms seen in fecal smear. The presence of erythrocytes supports the diagnosis due to the parasite's ability to invade intestinal mucosa causing bleeding. Choice B (Lambliasis) presents with different symptoms like steatorrhea and fatigue. Choice C (Schistosomiasis) is mainly associated with liver and urinary symptoms. Choice D (Intestinal trichomoniasis) commonly presents with watery diarrhea and does not typically cause bloody stools. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and fecal smear findings, Amebiasis is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 7 of 9
Which structure in bacteria allows them to exchange genetic material during conjugation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pili in bacteria are responsible for conjugation, allowing the transfer of genetic material between cells. They form a bridge between donor and recipient cells, facilitating the exchange of DNA. Flagella are for movement, capsules for protection, and ribosomes for protein synthesis. Pili is the only structure directly involved in genetic material exchange.
Question 8 of 9
What is the function of bacterial ribosomes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protein synthesis. Bacterial ribosomes are responsible for translating the genetic information from mRNA into proteins. This process involves the binding of transfer RNA molecules carrying amino acids to the ribosome and the formation of peptide bonds between the amino acids to create proteins. DNA replication (A) is carried out by DNA polymerase enzymes, not ribosomes. Energy production (C) is primarily the function of mitochondria in eukaryotic cells, and cell division (D) is regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, not ribosomes.
Question 9 of 9
A patient who suffered form syphilis took a course of antibiotic therapy and fully recovered. Some time later he was infected again with Treponema pallidum. What form of infection is it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reinfection. This is because the patient fully recovered from the initial syphilis infection after antibiotic therapy, indicating the elimination of the pathogen. Subsequently getting infected again with Treponema pallidum suggests a new exposure to the same pathogen, resulting in a new infection. Recurrence (B) would imply the reactivation of the same infection, which is not the case here. Superinfection (C) refers to a new infection that occurs on top of an existing infection, which is not the scenario described. Secondary infection (D) typically refers to an infection that occurs after an initial infection weakens the immune system, which is not the case in this scenario.