ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A fecal sample from a patient with diarrhea was cultured on Endo agar, resulting in colorless colonies. The bacteria were Gram-negative rods. What microorganism is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shigella. On Endo agar, Shigella appears as colorless colonies due to its inability to ferment lactose. Shigella is a Gram-negative rod and is a common cause of diarrhea. Salmonella (A) and Escherichia coli (C) would typically produce pink colonies on Endo agar as they can ferment lactose. Proteus (D) is not commonly associated with diarrhea and would not be expected to grow on Endo agar.
Question 2 of 9
A 28-year-old patient was hospitalized with preliminary diagnosis "influenza". Roseolous-petechial rash appeared on the 5th day of disease on the trunk. The temperature is 41oC. Hyperemia of face, reddening of scleras, tremor of tongue, tachycardia, splenomegaly are present. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Epidemic typhus (Choice A) based on the symptoms described. The presence of roseolous-petechial rash, high fever (41oC), hyperemia of face, reddening of scleras, tremor of the tongue, tachycardia, and splenomegaly are classic signs of epidemic typhus. The rash typically appears around the 5th day of the disease. Summary: - B: Measles typically presents with a maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading downward. It doesn't usually present with tremor of the tongue or splenomegaly. - C: Alcohol delirium is characterized by confusion, disorientation, and hallucinations due to alcohol consumption. It doesn't match the symptoms described. - D: Leptospirosis presents with fever, muscle pain, and conjunctival suffusion. It doesn't typically present with the specific rash and trem
Question 3 of 9
Which type of bacteria are capable of surviving in high salt concentrations?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C: Halophiles Rationale: 1. Halophiles are bacteria adapted to high salt environments. 2. They have specific mechanisms to tolerate high salt concentrations. 3. Acidophiles thrive in acidic conditions. 4. Thermophiles prefer high temperature environments. 5. Mesophiles grow best at moderate temperatures.
Question 4 of 9
For tuberculosis prevention the newborns got an injection of a vaccine. What vaccine was used?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BCG. BCG vaccine is commonly used for tuberculosis prevention because it provides immunity against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Mantoux is a test, not a vaccine. DTaP vaccine is for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not tuberculosis. Anatoxin is a type of toxoid vaccine, not used for tuberculosis prevention. BCG vaccine has been shown to be effective in preventing severe forms of tuberculosis in infants, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
The virulence factors of bacteria include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because virulence factors of bacteria are characteristics that enable them to cause disease. Colonization allows bacteria to establish and multiply in the host. Invasion refers to the ability to penetrate host tissues. Toxins are substances produced by bacteria that harm the host. Adhesion is crucial for bacteria to attach to host cells. A: Size and mutation are not typical virulence factors. Resistance is not directly related to causing disease. C: While toxins and evasion of body defenses are correct, motility and size are not universally considered virulence factors. D: Chemotaxis and fermentation are not primary virulence factors, unlike colonization and toxins.
Question 6 of 9
Growth of bacteria is a result of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The growth of bacteria is a result of water adsorption because water is essential for various metabolic processes within the bacterial cells, such as nutrient uptake, energy production, and waste removal. Water serves as a medium for chemical reactions to occur and provides structural support to the bacteria. Without sufficient water, bacteria cannot thrive and reproduce. A: Air consumption is incorrect because while bacteria may require oxygen for respiration, it is not the primary factor for their growth. C: Enzyme production is incorrect because enzymes are important for various cellular functions but do not directly influence bacterial growth. D: Radio isotopes are incorrect as they are not essential for bacterial growth and can even be harmful to bacterial cells.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following methods can be used for diagnosis of respiratory tract infections
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All are correct. Culture of samples from the respiratory tract can identify specific pathogens, Immunofluorescence can detect viral antigens, and PCR can amplify and detect specific DNA/RNA sequences. Using all methods together provides a comprehensive approach for diagnosing respiratory tract infections. Culture alone may miss fastidious organisms, Immunofluorescence has limitations in sensitivity, and PCR requires specific primers. Therefore, combining these methods increases the likelihood of accurate diagnosis by covering a range of pathogens and improving sensitivity and specificity.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: protozoans. Pinworms are commonly referred to as Enterobius vermicularis, which are parasitic worms belonging to the phylum Nematoda. Protozoans are single-celled organisms, and pinworms are multicellular worms. Algae are photosynthetic organisms, helminths are parasitic worms (which pinworms fall under), and fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include molds and yeasts. Therefore, protozoans are the correct choice for organisms commonly referred to as pinworms.
Question 9 of 9
The bacteriological laboratory needs to prepare for analysis of materials that are suspected to be contaminated with spores of anthrax causative agent. What diagnostic preparation allows for quick detection of these spores?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monoclonal antibodies to anthrax causative agent. Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific for detecting anthrax spores, providing quick and accurate results. They bind only to the anthrax causative agent, allowing for precise identification. Choice A (Anti-anthrax fluorescent serum) is incorrect because it is not as specific and sensitive as monoclonal antibodies. Choice B (Standard anthrax antigen) is incorrect as it is used to stimulate antibody production in the body, not for direct detection of spores. Choice C (Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin) is incorrect as it is a general term for antibodies and may not be specific to anthrax spores. In summary, monoclonal antibodies are the most suitable option for quick and accurate detection of anthrax spores due to their high specificity and sensitivity.