A fecal sample from a patient with diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

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microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A fecal sample from a patient with diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because the presence of cysts with four nuclei is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica, a protozoan parasite that causes amoebic dysentery. Entamoeba histolytica cysts contain four nuclei, distinguishing them from other pathogens. Giardia lamblia and Trichomonas vaginalis are not associated with cysts containing four nuclei. Balantidium coli is a ciliated protozoan that does not typically form cysts with multiple nuclei. In summary, the unique feature of four nuclei in the cysts points towards Entamoeba histolytica as the most likely causative agent of the diarrhea in this patient.

Question 2 of 9

Gram-positive cocci arranged in chains were found in a wound smear. The bacteria were catalase-negative and beta-hemolytic on blood agar. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium fits all the given characteristics: Gram-positive cocci arranged in chains, catalase-negative, and beta-hemolytic on blood agar. Streptococcus pyogenes is known for causing skin and soft tissue infections. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive and typically forms clusters, not chains. Enterococcus faecalis (C) is catalase-negative but not beta-hemolytic. Micrococcus luteus (D) is catalase-positive and not typically associated with wound infections.

Question 3 of 9

Laboratory diagnosis of rabies includes all of these except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Looking for Ernst-Babes granules. Laboratory diagnosis of rabies typically involves looking for Negri bodies in the brain tissue, intracerebrally infecting mice for virus isolation, and using immunofluorescence method to detect viral antigens. Ernst-Babes granules are not associated with rabies virus and are not used in the diagnosis of rabies. Therefore, choice C is incorrect.

Question 4 of 9

Which bacteria is responsible for causing cholera?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by this specific bacterium due to its production of cholera toxin, leading to severe watery diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, Salmonella enterica causes salmonellosis, and Clostridium perfringens causes food poisoning, none of which present with the characteristic symptoms of cholera.

Question 5 of 9

A patient presented with gas gangrene. Gram-positive rods producing spores and gas were isolated from a wound sample. Identify the microorganism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium perfringens is known to cause gas gangrene and is a Gram-positive rod that produces spores and gas in tissue infections. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not gas gangrene. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not gas gangrene. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci and does not produce spores or gas in the context of gas gangrene. Therefore, based on the characteristics of the microorganism isolated from the wound sample, Clostridium perfringens is the most likely causative agent.

Question 6 of 9

A 25-year-old patient was delivered to an infectious diseases unit on the 3rd day of illness with complaints of headache, pain in lumbar spine and gastrocnemius muscles, high fever, chill. Objectively: condition of moderate severity. Scleras are icteric. Pharynx is hyperemic. Tongue is dry with dry brown coating. Abdomen is distended. Liver is enlarged by 2 cm. Spleen is not enlarged. Palpation of muscles, especially gastrocnemius muscles, is painful. Urine is dark in color. Stool is normal in color. The most likely diagnosis is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct diagnosis is Leptospirosis. Leptospirosis presents with headache, fever, muscle pain, jaundice, and kidney involvement. The patient's symptoms of headache, lumbar and muscle pain, high fever, icteric scleras, and dark urine are classic for Leptospirosis. The enlarged liver could be due to liver involvement in the disease. The absence of splenic enlargement and normal stool color rule out malaria. Infectious mononucleosis typically presents with sore throat and lymphadenopathy, which are absent in this case. Viral hepatitis A may present with similar symptoms, but the presence of muscle pain and dark urine is more indicative of Leptospirosis. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and clinical findings, Leptospirosis is the most likely diagnosis.

Question 7 of 9

Polyclonal antibodies can respond to multiple antigens:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Polyclonal antibodies are produced by different B cells, each recognizing a different epitope on an antigen. Therefore, they can respond to multiple antigens. This diversity in recognition allows polyclonal antibodies to bind to various targets, making option A true. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the nature of polyclonal antibodies' ability to recognize multiple antigens.

Question 8 of 9

How the prepared immunofluorescence slide should be examined?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because immunofluorescence slides are examined under a fluorescence microscope with a x100 oil immersion objective. This is because immunofluorescence relies on the detection of fluorescently labeled antibodies, which emit light when excited by a specific wavelength. Using a fluorescence microscope allows for visualization of these labeled antibodies at high magnification and resolution, enabling precise examination of cellular structures and protein localization. Choice B is incorrect as light microscopes are not suitable for visualizing fluorescence. Choice C is incorrect as electron microscopes use electrons, not light, for imaging, which is not compatible with immunofluorescence. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific method for examining immunofluorescence slides.

Question 9 of 9

For cultivation of Brucella, pure cultures should be incubated in CO2 enriched atmosphere. What type of breathing is typical for Brucella?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capnophilic. Brucella requires a CO2 enriched atmosphere for cultivation, making it capnophilic. This is because Brucella is a microaerophilic bacterium that thrives in low oxygen conditions and elevated CO2 levels. Choice B (Facultative anaerobic) and D (Obligate aerobic) are incorrect as Brucella does not grow well under aerobic conditions. Choice C (Obligate anaerobic) is also incorrect as Brucella can grow in the presence of oxygen, although it prefers low oxygen environments.

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