ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A fecal sample cultured on Endo agar revealed colorless colonies. The bacteria were Gram-negative rods and lactose non-fermenters. What microorganism is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Shigella (Choice C) because it matches the description of being Gram-negative rods and lactose non-fermenters. Shigella is a non-lactose fermenting, Gram-negative rod that typically produces colorless colonies on Endo agar. Salmonella (Choice A) and Escherichia coli (Choice B) are both lactose fermenters and would produce pink colonies on Endo agar. Proteus (Choice D) is also a lactose fermenter and would appear pink on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the characteristics provided, Shigella is the most likely microorganism in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
Francisella tularensis is a:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: non-spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium. Francisella tularensis is a non-spore forming bacterium, which rules out choices A and D. It is encapsulated, which eliminates choice C. The encapsulation of the bacterium helps it evade the host immune system, leading to its pathogenicity. This encapsulated bacterium is responsible for causing the zoonotic disease tularemia in humans.
Question 3 of 9
The most important mechanism of tetracycline resistance is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased active efflux from the bacterial cell. This is the most important mechanism of tetracycline resistance because it involves the bacteria actively pumping out the antibiotic, reducing its intracellular concentration. This prevents tetracycline from effectively targeting bacterial ribosomes. Choice A is incorrect as tetracycline resistance typically involves active efflux rather than reduced influx. Choice B is incorrect because tetracycline resistance mechanisms do not primarily involve altered cell membrane components affecting passive influx. Choice D is also incorrect as tetracycline resistance mechanisms do not typically involve direct enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic.
Question 4 of 9
Which bacteria are capable of producing endospores?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium belongs to the Clostridium genus, known for its ability to produce endospores. Endospores are dormant, resistant structures that help bacteria survive harsh conditions. Staphylococcus aureus (A), Escherichia coli (C), and Neisseria gonorrhoeae (D) do not produce endospores. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive bacterium known for causing various infections, but it does not form endospores. Escherichia coli is a gram-negative bacterium commonly found in the intestines of humans and animals, but it does not produce endospores. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative bacterium that causes the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhea, but it also does not form endospores.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with fever, headache, and neck stiffness had a cerebrospinal fluid sample showing Gram-negative diplococci. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus known to cause bacterial meningitis, presenting with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. It is a common cause of meningitis in young adults and teenagers. Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-positive bacteria and a common cause of bacterial pneumonia, not meningitis. Haemophilus influenzae (C) is a Gram-negative coccobacillus that can cause meningitis, but it is less common in adults. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacillus known to cause pneumonia and urinary tract infections, not meningitis.
Question 6 of 9
A 45 year old male died from disseminated tuberculosis. On autopsy the symptoms of tuberculosis were confirmed by both microscopical and histological analyses. What kind of hypersensitivity reaction underlies the process of granuloma development?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Delayed hypersensitivity reaction. In granuloma development in tuberculosis, macrophages present antigen to T cells, leading to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. This triggers the recruitment of more macrophages and formation of granulomas. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity (B) and complement-dependent cytotoxicity (C) involve antibodies and complement proteins in immediate hypersensitivity reactions, which are not the primary mechanisms in tuberculosis. Anaphylactic reaction (D) is an acute systemic allergic reaction mediated by IgE antibodies, not relevant to granuloma formation in tuberculosis.
Question 7 of 9
A female patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. A smear from the vaginal mucous membrane contained big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies; big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were revealed in the smear?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection characterized by inflammation of urogenital tracts. The description of big unicellular pyriform organisms with a sharp spike on the back end of their bodies, big nucleus, and undulating membrane matches the morphology of Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas hominis and Trichomonas buccalis are different species that do not cause urogenital infections. Trypanosoma gambiense is a protozoan parasite causing African trypanosomiasis and does not match the described morphology or symptoms.
Question 8 of 9
Dengue virus is member of a family called
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flaviviridae. Dengue virus belongs to the Flaviviridae family because it is a flavivirus. Flaviviruses are a group of RNA viruses known to cause diseases in humans, such as dengue fever, Zika virus, and yellow fever. This family is characterized by its single-stranded, positive-sense RNA genome and enveloped virion structure. Hepadnaviridae (choice A), Parvoviridae (choice B), and Picornaviridae (choice D) are all different families of viruses that do not include the dengue virus. Hepadnaviridae includes hepatitis B virus, Parvoviridae includes parvoviruses, and Picornaviridae includes enteroviruses like poliovirus.
Question 9 of 9
What is the structure of bacterial flagella?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: protein filaments made of flagellin. Bacterial flagella are composed of flagellin proteins arranged in helical filaments. This structure allows for movement and propulsion of bacteria. A: 9+2 microtubule arrangement is incorrect because this structure is typically found in eukaryotic flagella, not bacterial flagella. C: Lipid bilayer is incorrect as it is a structural component of cell membranes, not bacterial flagella. D: Peptidoglycan layer is incorrect as it is a component of bacterial cell walls, not flagella.