A fecal sample cultured on Endo agar revealed colorless colonies. The bacteria were Gram-negative rods and lactose non-fermenters. What microorganism is most likely?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Shigella (Choice C) because it matches the description of being Gram-negative rods and lactose non-fermenters. Shigella is a non-lactose fermenting, Gram-negative rod that typically produces colorless colonies on Endo agar. Salmonella (Choice A) and Escherichia coli (Choice B) are both lactose fermenters and would produce pink colonies on Endo agar. Proteus (Choice D) is also a lactose fermenter and would appear pink on Endo agar. Therefore, based on the characteristics provided, Shigella is the most likely microorganism in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Formic acid is produced during fermentation by Actinomyces. Step 2: Actinomyces are known to produce organic acids like formic acid through fermentation. Step 3: Other choices like Streptococcus, Klebsiella, and Clostridium are not typically associated with formic acid production. Step 4: Actinomyces is the most likely candidate based on its fermentation capabilities. Summary: Actinomyces is the correct answer because it is known to produce formic acid during fermentation, while the other choices lack this specific metabolic function.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Propionibacterium acnes. This bacterium is not a fungus, but a common skin bacteria. Fungal vaginitis is typically caused by Candida albicans or other fungal species, not by bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus agalactiae, or Klebsiella oxytoca. Propionibacterium acnes is not associated with vaginal infections, making it the correct answer in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Iodine solution contains iodine, a halogen with antiseptic properties. 2. Iodine is effective against fungi, making it suitable for treating dermatomycosis. 3. Iodine solution is commonly used in dermatology for its fungicidal properties. 4. Formalin, methylene blue, and brilliant green do not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties. Summary: - Formalin is a disinfectant, not an antiseptic for dermatomycosis. - Methylene blue is an antifungal dye, not used as an antiseptic. - Brilliant green is an antiseptic, but does not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: non-spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium. Francisella tularensis is a non-spore forming bacterium, which rules out choices A and D. It is encapsulated, which eliminates choice C. The encapsulation of the bacterium helps it evade the host immune system, leading to its pathogenicity. This encapsulated bacterium is responsible for causing the zoonotic disease tularemia in humans.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because virulence factors of bacteria are characteristics that enable them to cause disease. Colonization allows bacteria to establish and multiply in the host. Invasion refers to the ability to penetrate host tissues. Toxins are substances produced by bacteria that harm the host. Adhesion is crucial for bacteria to attach to host cells. A: Size and mutation are not typical virulence factors. Resistance is not directly related to causing disease. C: While toxins and evasion of body defenses are correct, motility and size are not universally considered virulence factors. D: Chemotaxis and fermentation are not primary virulence factors, unlike colonization and toxins.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: After a splenectomy, patients are at high risk of infections caused by encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Salmonella. The spleen plays a crucial role in the immune response against encapsulated bacteria, and its absence increases susceptibility to these specific pathogens. Therefore, all choices are correct as patients are at risk of infections from all three types of bacteria mentioned.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Head lice. Epidemic typhus is transmitted by the body louse, Pediculus humanus humanus, which is different from the head louse, Pediculus humanus capitis. Head lice are not known to transmit epidemic typhus. Body lice are the primary vectors for transmitting epidemic typhus. Fleas are vectors for other diseases such as plague, not epidemic typhus. Ticks are vectors for various diseases but not for epidemic typhus. Therefore, the correct vector for epidemic typhus transmission is body lice, making choice A the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Syphilis. The Wasserman reaction is a test for syphilis, specifically for detecting antibodies against the bacterium Treponema pallidum. In a 30-year-old man with a markedly positive Wasserman reaction, it indicates an active syphilis infection. Brucellosis (Choice A) is not diagnosed using the Wasserman reaction. Poliomyelitis (Choice C) is a viral infection affecting the spinal cord, not diagnosed using the Wasserman reaction. Influenza (Choice D) is a respiratory viral infection, not associated with the Wasserman reaction.