ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A father brings his 2-month-old infant to the clinic because the infant has had diarrhea for the last 24 hours. He says that his baby has not been able to keep any formula down and that the diarrhea has been occurring at least every 2 hours. The nurse suspects dehydration. Where should the nurse test skin mobility and turgor in this infant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Over the sternum. When testing for skin mobility and turgor in infants, the sternum is the best location. This area is less affected by factors like fat distribution and muscle tone, providing a more accurate assessment of dehydration. The skin should be gently pinched and released to observe how quickly it returns to its normal position - delayed return indicates dehydration. The other choices are incorrect because testing over the forehead, forearms, or abdomen may not provide an accurate assessment due to variations in fat distribution, muscle tone, or skin elasticity in those areas.
Question 2 of 5
While discussing the history of a 6-month-old infant, the mother tells the nurse that she took a great deal of aspirin while she was pregnant. What question would the nurse want to include in the history?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse would want to ask about the number of ear infections the baby has had since birth because aspirin exposure during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of developing Reye's syndrome, which can lead to recurrent ear infections. This question helps assess the baby's risk for complications related to aspirin exposure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the potential complications associated with aspirin exposure during pregnancy.
Question 3 of 5
A man comes to the emergency department after he had participated in a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. Signs of retinal detachment include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 4 of 5
A 70-year-old patient reports to the nurse that he is having trouble hearing, especially when he is in large groups. He says he"can't always tell where the sound is coming from" and the words often sound"mixed up." What might the nurse suspect as the cause for this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Degeneration of nerves in the inner ear. This is likely the cause of the patient's hearing difficulties, as age-related degeneration of nerves in the inner ear can lead to difficulty distinguishing sounds and determining their direction. Atrophy of the apocrine glands (Choice A) and cilia becoming coarse and stiff (Choice B) are not related to hearing loss. Scarring of the tympanic membrane (Choice D) would affect sound conduction but not the perception of sound direction and clarity.
Question 5 of 5
A patient's medical record describes a lesion that is confluent in nature. On examination, the nurse would expect to find:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: lesions that run together. Confluent lesions refer to merging or blending of individual lesions to form a larger lesion. This indicates a continuous area of involvement on the skin. Choices B, C, and D do not accurately describe confluent lesions as they refer to different patterns of lesion distribution such as annular, linear, or grouped. The key to identifying confluent lesions is the concept of merging or running together, which is best represented by choice A.