ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A father brings his 2-month-old infant to the clinic because the infant has had diarrhea for the last 24 hours. He says that his baby has not been able to keep any formula down and that the diarrhea has been occurring at least every 2 hours. The nurse suspects dehydration. Where should the nurse test skin mobility and turgor in this infant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Over the sternum. When testing for skin mobility and turgor in infants, the sternum is the best location. This area is less affected by factors like fat distribution and muscle tone, providing a more accurate assessment of dehydration. The skin should be gently pinched and released to observe how quickly it returns to its normal position - delayed return indicates dehydration. The other choices are incorrect because testing over the forehead, forearms, or abdomen may not provide an accurate assessment due to variations in fat distribution, muscle tone, or skin elasticity in those areas.
Question 2 of 9
A visitor from Poland who does not speak English appears somewhat apprehensive while the nurse is examining his neck. He would probably be most comfortable if the nurse were examining his thyroid:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it demonstrates cultural sensitivity and respect for the patient's comfort. Placing the nurse's thumbs on either side of the trachea and tilting the patient's head forward is a non-threatening and non-invasive approach to examining the thyroid. This position allows the nurse to assess the thyroid gland without causing discomfort or intimidation to the patient. Choice A is incorrect because having the nurse's hands placed firmly around the neck from behind may be perceived as invasive and threatening to the patient. Choice B is incorrect because having the nurse's thumbs on the patient's neck with eyes averted toward the ceiling may come across as awkward and unprofessional. Choice D is incorrect because tilting the patient's head backward can cause discomfort and may not be culturally sensitive as it can be perceived as invasive.
Question 3 of 9
A woman is at the clinic for a checkup and says,"My eyes have gotten puffy, and my eyebrows and hair have become coarse and dry." The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: myxedema. This is a classic presentation of hypothyroidism, specifically myxedema, characterized by puffy eyes, coarse hair, and dry skin. The thyroid hormone deficiency leads to decreased metabolic activity, causing these symptoms. Cachexia (A) is severe muscle wasting seen in conditions like cancer. Cretinism (B) is congenital hypothyroidism leading to mental retardation. Scleroderma (D) is a connective tissue disorder causing skin thickening, not typically associated with these symptoms.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse notices that a patient's submental lymph nodes are enlarged. In an effort to identify the cause of the node enlargement, the nurse would assess the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: supraclavicular area. Enlarged submental lymph nodes can indicate a systemic issue. Assessing the supraclavicular area is important as it contains Virchow's node, which may indicate malignancy or metastasis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically target the area most likely to reveal significant findings related to the enlarged submental lymph nodes.
Question 5 of 9
The portion of the ear that consists of movable cartilage and skin is called the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: auricle. The auricle is the visible, outer portion of the ear made up of movable cartilage and skin. It serves to collect sound waves and direct them into the ear canal. The other choices are incorrect because the concha (B) is the concave cavity leading to the ear canal, the outer meatus (C) is the ear canal itself, and the mastoid process (D) is a bony protrusion behind the ear that has no role in sound collection.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is testing the hearing of a 78-year-old man. Which of the following age-related hearing changes should the nurse keep in mind? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age-related hearing loss begins in the mid-40s. This is because presbycusis, or age-related hearing loss, typically starts around the mid-40s due to natural aging processes affecting the inner ear. Choice B is incorrect as the progression of hearing loss can vary, being gradual for some individuals but not necessarily slow for everyone. Choice C is incorrect as high-frequency tone loss, not low-frequency, is commonly associated with aging. Choice D is incorrect as difficulty hearing consonants is more related to specific types of hearing loss, not solely age-related changes.
Question 7 of 9
While obtaining history for a 1-year-old from the mother, the nurse notices that the baby has had a bottle in his mouth the entire time. The mother states that"it makes a great pacifier." The best response by the nurse would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Prolonged use of a bottle can increase the risk for tooth decay and ear infections." This response is the best because it addresses the potential consequences of prolonged bottle use, which include tooth decay and ear infections. It educates the mother on the risks associated with using a bottle as a pacifier for an extended period. Rationale: 1. Tooth decay: Prolonged exposure to sugary liquids in the bottle can lead to tooth decay, as the sugar feeds bacteria in the mouth. 2. Ear infections: Bottle-feeding while lying down can increase the risk of ear infections due to fluid entering the Eustachian tube. 3. Education: The response educates the mother on the specific risks associated with prolonged bottle use, promoting informed decision-making. 4. Health promotion: By highlighting the potential negative outcomes, the nurse is advocating for the baby's health and well-being. Incorrect Choices: A: "You're right, bottles make
Question 8 of 9
The nurse has discovered decreased skin turgor in a patient. In which of the following would this be an expected finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: In an individual who is severely dehydrated. Decreased skin turgor is a clinical sign of dehydration, indicating loss of skin elasticity due to fluid loss. Severe dehydration leads to decreased skin turgor as the skin loses its ability to recoil when pinched. In cases of severe obesity (choice A), skin turgor is usually normal or increased due to excess adipose tissue. During childhood growth spurts (choice B), skin turgor is typically unaffected. Connective tissue disorders like scleroderma (choice D) can lead to changes in skin texture and appearance, but not necessarily decreased skin turgor.
Question 9 of 9
Jaundice is manifested by a yellow skin colour, indicating rising levels of bilirubin in the blood. Which of the following findings is indicative of true jaundice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Jaundice is characterized by a yellow skin color due to elevated bilirubin levels. Step 2: Yellow color extending up to the iris indicates systemic jaundice, involving the whole body. Step 3: Yellow patches throughout the sclera (Choice A) may not indicate systemic jaundice. Step 4: Skin appearing yellow under low light (Choice C) may not be specific to jaundice. Step 5: Yellow deposits on palms and soles (Choice D) are not typical signs of jaundice. Therefore, Choice B is correct as it reflects systemic jaundice, while the other choices do not fully align with the manifestation of true jaundice.