A father brings his 2-month-old infant to the clinic because the infant has had diarrhea for the last 24 hours. He says that his baby has not been able to keep any formula down and that the diarrhea has been occurring at least every 2 hours. The nurse suspects dehydration. Where should the nurse test skin mobility and turgor in this infant?

Questions 46

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A father brings his 2-month-old infant to the clinic because the infant has had diarrhea for the last 24 hours. He says that his baby has not been able to keep any formula down and that the diarrhea has been occurring at least every 2 hours. The nurse suspects dehydration. Where should the nurse test skin mobility and turgor in this infant?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Over the sternum. When testing for skin mobility and turgor in infants, the sternum is the best location. This area is less affected by factors like fat distribution and muscle tone, providing a more accurate assessment of dehydration. The skin should be gently pinched and released to observe how quickly it returns to its normal position - delayed return indicates dehydration. The other choices are incorrect because testing over the forehead, forearms, or abdomen may not provide an accurate assessment due to variations in fat distribution, muscle tone, or skin elasticity in those areas.

Question 2 of 9

During an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse would expect to find:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: decreased ability to identify odors. As people age, their sense of smell tends to decline due to changes in the olfactory system. This is a common phenomenon in older adults and can impact their overall quality of life. The other choices are incorrect because hypertrophy of the gums (A) is not a typical finding in older adults, increased production of saliva (B) is not directly related to aging, and finer and less prominent nasal hair (D) is not a definitive characteristic of older age.

Question 3 of 9

While performing a voice test to assess hearing in a patient, which of the following would the nurse do?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Whispering two-syllable words ensures a low volume, requiring the patient to focus on clarity. 2. Asking the patient to repeat tests their ability to hear and understand the whispered words accurately. 3. Whispering helps eliminate the influence of lip-reading, ensuring accurate assessment. Summary: A: Shielding the lips while speaking would hinder the patient's ability to hear clearly. C: Placing a finger in the ear would not be appropriate as it could affect the accuracy of the test. D: Standing at a specific distance does not ensure accurate assessment of hearing ability.

Question 4 of 9

The portion of the ear that consists of movable cartilage and skin is called the:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: auricle. The auricle is the visible, outer portion of the ear made up of movable cartilage and skin. It serves to collect sound waves and direct them into the ear canal. The other choices are incorrect because the concha (B) is the concave cavity leading to the ear canal, the outer meatus (C) is the ear canal itself, and the mastoid process (D) is a bony protrusion behind the ear that has no role in sound collection.

Question 5 of 9

A 65-year-old male has reported a crusty nodule behind the pinna. Over the past 6 months, the nodule has been bleeding intermittently and has not healed. On physical assessment, the nurse finds an ulcerated crusted nodule with an indurated base. The preliminary analysis in this situation would be that this:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the characteristics described (bleeding, not healing, ulcerated, indurated base) are indicative of a potential carcinoma, such as squamous cell carcinoma. These features raise concerns about malignancy and warrant immediate referral for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a benign sebaceous cyst (A) typically presents as a smooth, non-ulcerated mass, Darwin's tubercle (B) is a normal anatomical variation behind the ear and not associated with bleeding or ulceration, and a tophus (D) is a deposit of uric acid crystals seen in gout and would not present in this manner.

Question 6 of 9

A patient's medical record describes a lesion that is confluent in nature. On examination, the nurse would expect to find:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: lesions that run together. Confluent lesions refer to merging or blending of individual lesions to form a larger lesion. This indicates a continuous area of involvement on the skin. Choices B, C, and D do not accurately describe confluent lesions as they refer to different patterns of lesion distribution such as annular, linear, or grouped. The key to identifying confluent lesions is the concept of merging or running together, which is best represented by choice A.

Question 7 of 9

During an interview, the patient says that he experiences a sensation as if"everything around him is spinning." The nurse recognizes that the portion of the ear responsible for this sensation is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: the bony labyrinth. The bony labyrinth is the portion of the inner ear that includes the vestibular system responsible for balance and spatial orientation. This system detects rotational movements and contributes to the sensation of vertigo or spinning. Choice A, the cochlea, is responsible for hearing. Choice B, CN VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), transmits auditory and balance-related information but is not the physical structure responsible for the sensation of spinning. Choice C, the organ of Corti, is located within the cochlea and is responsible for auditory transduction, not balance sensations.

Question 8 of 9

What would be a normal finding when assessing the lacrimal apparatus during an eye examination?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The presence of tears along the inner canthus. This is a normal finding during an eye examination as tears are produced by the lacrimal gland and drain into the nasolacrimal duct, which exits at the inner canthus. This indicates proper tear production and drainage. Incorrect choices: B: A blocked nasolacrimal duct in a newborn infant - This would present as excessive tearing and discharge. C: A slight swelling over the upper lid and along the bony orbit if the patient has a cold - This could indicate inflammation due to infection. D: The absence of drainage from the puncta when the inner orbital rim is pressed - This would suggest an issue with the lacrimal drainage system.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse notices that the patient has bluish white, red-based spots in her mouth that are elevated about 1 to 3 mm. What other signs would the nurse expect to find in this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the description of a red-purple, maculopapular, blotchy rash behind the ears and on the face is characteristic of a condition called Koplik spots, which are associated with measles. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that presents with symptoms such as cough, runny nose, high fever, and a widespread rash. The presence of Koplik spots in the mouth is a classic early sign of measles. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the specific description of the patient's mouth spots or other expected signs of measles. It's essential for the nurse to recognize the unique features of Koplik spots to promptly identify and manage measles infection.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days