ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Assessment 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A drug has been prescribed to decrease the effects of an endogenous chemical. The nurse would place this drug in which category?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) An antagonist. An antagonist is a drug that binds to a receptor site and inhibits or blocks the action of an endogenous chemical or another drug. By doing so, it decreases the effects produced by the endogenous chemical. Option A) An agonist activates a receptor site to produce a specific response, which is the opposite of what is needed in this case. Option B) A partial agonist activates a receptor site but to a lesser degree than a full agonist, which is not relevant here. Option D) An agonist-antagonist is a drug that can act as both an agonist and an antagonist, which is not the situation described in the question. Understanding the role of antagonists in pharmacology is crucial for nurses to effectively administer medications and manage their effects on patients. By grasping the concept of antagonists, nurses can ensure the safe and appropriate use of drugs to achieve optimal patient outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
A 21-year-old male presents to the clinic with 6 weeks of painful, bloody stools. Flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals erythema and friability with pseudopolyps. Which of the following drugs used for ulcerative colitis has both anti-inflammatory and antibacterial properties?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ulcerative colitis (UC) presents with bloody stools and mucosal inflammation, as seen on sigmoidoscopy. Sulfasalazine is correct-it combines 5-ASA (anti-inflammatory) and sulfapyridine (antibacterial), reducing inflammation and bacterial overgrowth in UC. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant, lacking antibacterial action. Cyclosporine is immunosuppressive, not antibacterial. Mesalamine is anti-inflammatory only. Olsalazine (E) is similar to mesalamine. Sulfasalazine's dual action targets UC's inflammatory and microbial components, making it uniquely suited among the options for this chronic condition.
Question 3 of 5
A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department in the morning with urticaria and difficulty breathing following a bee sting received while gardening. He is treated, recovers, and is sent home. Later that evening, his symptoms return and he is treated again in the emergency department. He denies having been stung again. What should have been given to this patient to avoid his return to the emergency department?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Recurrent allergic symptoms post-bee sting suggest ongoing inflammation. Prednisolone , a corticosteroid, reduces late-phase reactions. Diphenhydramine and Loratadine treat acute symptoms. Epinephrine is for anaphylaxis but short-acting. Prednisolone prevents biphasic reactions, avoiding his return.
Question 4 of 5
A 29-year-old man with recurrent allergic rhinitis presents to his primary care physician for evaluation. He states that his symptoms are more problematic lately and desires treatment. He has begun on fexofenadine. Which of the following adverse reactions is possible in this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Headache. Fexofenadine is an antihistamine commonly used to treat allergic rhinitis. Headache is a possible adverse reaction to antihistamines due to their central nervous system effects. Anxiety (option A) is less likely as antihistamines like fexofenadine typically do not cause this reaction. Cough (option B) is not a common side effect of fexofenadine. Otitis media (option D) is also not directly associated with fexofenadine use. Educationally, understanding common adverse reactions to medications is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to patients. It helps in monitoring for potential side effects, managing patient expectations, and ensuring appropriate treatment outcomes. Pharmacology assessments like this one help students apply their knowledge of drug actions and side effects in clinical scenarios, preparing them to make informed decisions in real-world practice.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following combinations of antiparkinsonian drugs is appropriate treatment plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Levodopa, the cornerstone of Parkinson's treatment, converts to dopamine in the brain. Carbidopa inhibits peripheral dopa decarboxylase, increasing levodopa's CNS availability and reducing side effects. Entacapone, a COMT inhibitor, prolongs levodopa's half-life by preventing its peripheral breakdown, enhancing efficacy. This trio targets dopamine synthesis and metabolism synergistically, a standard advanced-stage regimen. Amantadine lacks synergy with carbidopa/entacapone, focusing on NMDA antagonism. Pramipexole (dopamine agonist) with carbidopa/entacapone is less common, as carbidopa pairs with levodopa. Ropinirole and selegiline boost dopamine but miss levodopa's direct effect; entacapone's role weakens without levodopa. The levodopa-carbidopa-entacapone combination optimizes dopamine delivery, making it a clinically proven and appropriate plan.