ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Assessment 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A drug has been prescribed to decrease the effects of an endogenous chemical. The nurse would place this drug in which category?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Antagonists block endogenous chemicals' effects (e.g., beta-blockers vs. adrenaline), reducing activity. Agonists mimic, partial agonists partially activate, and agonist-antagonists mix effects. Decreasing an endogenous effect fits antagonists, a pharmacodynamic classification.
Question 2 of 5
A 21-year-old male presents to the clinic with 6 weeks of painful, bloody stools. Flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals erythema and friability with pseudopolyps. Which of the following drugs used for ulcerative colitis has both anti-inflammatory and antibacterial properties?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ulcerative colitis (UC) presents with bloody stools and mucosal inflammation, as seen on sigmoidoscopy. Sulfasalazine is correct-it combines 5-ASA (anti-inflammatory) and sulfapyridine (antibacterial), reducing inflammation and bacterial overgrowth in UC. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant, lacking antibacterial action. Cyclosporine is immunosuppressive, not antibacterial. Mesalamine is anti-inflammatory only. Olsalazine (E) is similar to mesalamine. Sulfasalazine's dual action targets UC's inflammatory and microbial components, making it uniquely suited among the options for this chronic condition.
Question 3 of 5
A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department in the morning with urticaria and difficulty breathing following a bee sting received while gardening. He is treated, recovers, and is sent home. Later that evening, his symptoms return and he is treated again in the emergency department. He denies having been stung again. What should have been given to this patient to avoid his return to the emergency department?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Recurrent allergic symptoms post-bee sting suggest ongoing inflammation. Prednisolone , a corticosteroid, reduces late-phase reactions. Diphenhydramine and Loratadine treat acute symptoms. Epinephrine is for anaphylaxis but short-acting. Prednisolone prevents biphasic reactions, avoiding his return.
Question 4 of 5
A 29-year-old man with recurrent allergic rhinitis presents to his primary care physician for evaluation. He states that his symptoms are more problematic lately and desires treatment. He has begun on fexofenadine. Which of the following adverse reactions is possible in this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fexofenadine, a non-sedating antihistamine, may cause headache , a common side effect. Anxiety , cough , otitis , and respiratory infection (E) are less frequent. Its minimal CNS penetration suits rhinitis, but headache requires awareness.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following combinations of antiparkinsonian drugs is appropriate treatment plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Levodopa, the cornerstone of Parkinson's treatment, converts to dopamine in the brain. Carbidopa inhibits peripheral dopa decarboxylase, increasing levodopa's CNS availability and reducing side effects. Entacapone, a COMT inhibitor, prolongs levodopa's half-life by preventing its peripheral breakdown, enhancing efficacy. This trio targets dopamine synthesis and metabolism synergistically, a standard advanced-stage regimen. Amantadine lacks synergy with carbidopa/entacapone, focusing on NMDA antagonism. Pramipexole (dopamine agonist) with carbidopa/entacapone is less common, as carbidopa pairs with levodopa. Ropinirole and selegiline boost dopamine but miss levodopa's direct effect; entacapone's role weakens without levodopa. The levodopa-carbidopa-entacapone combination optimizes dopamine delivery, making it a clinically proven and appropriate plan.