ATI RN
Age Specific Nursing Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
A depressed patient who is taking a tricyclic antidepressant tells the nurse, "I don't think I can keep taking these pills. They make me very dizzy, especially when I stand up." The best nursing response is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because tricyclic antidepressants can cause orthostatic hypotension leading to dizziness upon standing. Advising the patient to drink more fluids and change positions slowly can help alleviate this symptom. Choice A minimizes the patient's concern, which is not therapeutic. Choice C diminishes the patient's experience and feelings. Choice D dismisses the patient's symptoms and attributes them solely to the patient's negative thinking, which is not appropriate.
Question 2 of 5
A patient receiving risperidone (Risperdal) reports severe muscle stiffness midmorning. During lunch he has difficulty swallowing food and speaking, and when vital signs are taken 30 minutes later, he is noted to be stuporous and diaphoretic, with a temperature of 38.8° C, pulse of 110 beats/min, and blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg. The nurse should suspect _____ and should _____.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. The severe muscle stiffness, difficulty swallowing, altered mental status, diaphoresis, elevated temperature, and vital sign changes are classic signs of NMS. Treatment includes immediate cooling to lower the body temperature and transfer to the intensive care unit for close monitoring and supportive care. Choice B: Anticholinergic toxicity does not fit the patient's presentation as there are no specific signs of anticholinergic toxicity such as dry mucous membranes, dilated pupils, or tachycardia. Choice C: Relapse of psychosis is unlikely to present with the same constellation of symptoms, including altered mental status, fever, and vital sign changes. Choice D: Agranulocytosis is characterized by a severe drop in white blood cells, leading to increased risk of infection, but it does
Question 3 of 5
A client displays disorganized thinking, difficult-to-follow speech, and silly, inappropriate affect. The client isolates himself from other clients and staff, ignores unit activities, and often seems to be listening and responding to unseen stimuli. This client's behavior most closely conforms to the characteristic behavior of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disorganized schizophrenia. The client's symptoms of disorganized thinking, difficult-to-follow speech, inappropriate affect, social withdrawal, and hallucinations (responding to unseen stimuli) align with the diagnostic criteria for Disorganized Schizophrenia. This subtype is characterized by disorganized behavior, speech, and affect, as well as social withdrawal and hallucinations. A: Residual schizophrenia does not involve active psychotic symptoms like hallucinations or delusions, which are present in the client's behavior described. B: Schizoaffective disorder combines symptoms of schizophrenia and mood disorders, and the client's symptoms do not strongly suggest a mood disorder component. C: Paranoid schizophrenia typically involves prominent delusions and auditory hallucinations, which are not emphasized in the client's behavior described.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is administering haloperidol (Haldol) to a client experiencing delusions and hallucinations associated with schizophrenia. The nurse can expect symptom abatement as a result of the drug's action to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic that works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. By blocking these receptors, haloperidol reduces the effects of excess dopamine, which is known to contribute to symptoms of schizophrenia such as delusions and hallucinations. This action helps alleviate the positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Choice A is incorrect because haloperidol does not reduce the number of brain cells that crave dopamine; it acts on the receptors themselves. Choice C is incorrect because enhancing dopamine receptors would lead to an increase in the effects of dopamine, worsening symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because haloperidol does not cause increased cellular production of dopamine; it blocks dopamine receptors instead.
Question 5 of 5
A client with schizophrenia tells the nurse as they sit in the day room, 'I hear voices telling me bad things.' The most therapeutic response the nurse can make is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it demonstrates empathy and validation of the client's experience. By acknowledging the client's reality of hearing voices and emphasizing that the nurse does not hear them, the nurse establishes trust and rapport. This response shows active listening and validates the client's feelings without judgment. Incorrect responses: A: Asking the client to describe the voices may increase distress and is not as supportive as acknowledging their experience. C: Dismissing the voices as not real can invalidate the client's experience and may lead to mistrust. D: Suggesting a change of location does not address the client's immediate concerns and may not be therapeutic in this situation.