ATI RN
Age Specific Populations Questions
Question 1 of 5
A depressed patient is to have his first electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) session tomorrow morning. Which intervention would routinely be implemented in preparing the patient for treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Advising the patient that memory loss is usually transient. This is because memory loss is a common side effect of ECT, but it is typically temporary and resolves after treatment. It is important to prepare the patient for potential memory issues to reduce anxiety and manage expectations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because explaining the number of treatments needed, preparing for restraint, or suggesting ECT will end depression are not standard interventions in preparing a patient for ECT.
Question 2 of 5
A 34-year-old client with residual schizophrenia frequently displays ambivalence. The community mental health nurse suggests that a realistic short-term outcome for this client problem is that client will:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Choose between two outfits to wear each morning. This outcome is realistic because it focuses on a concrete and manageable task that the client can achieve, promoting independence and decision-making skills. It also addresses the issue of ambivalence by providing the client with limited choices, which can help reduce anxiety and facilitate decision-making. A: Decide his or her own daily schedule - This option may be too overwhelming for a client with residual schizophrenia and may not directly address the issue of ambivalence. B: Refuse to attend activities - This option is negative and does not promote progress or independence for the client. C: Choose which clinic staff member to work with - This option may not be directly related to the client's ambivalence or daily functioning, making it less relevant as a short-term goal.
Question 3 of 5
A client with paranoid schizophrenia has said she feels like throwing a chair. The nurse in the dayroom hears this and wishes to encourage verbalization as a desecalation technique. Which response by the nurse would fulfill this plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it encourages the client to express their feelings verbally, promoting communication and potentially preventing escalation of behavior. By saying "Tell me what's going on," the nurse acknowledges the client's emotions and creates a safe space for them to talk. Option B threatens restraint, likely increasing tension. Option C may come off as confrontational. Option D distracts from the immediate need for the client to process their feelings.
Question 4 of 5
Because of the cognitive disturbances associated with schizophrenia, which technique will be useful as the nurse teaches a client about self-management?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because teaching material in small segments is effective for individuals with cognitive disturbances like schizophrenia, as it helps improve comprehension and retention. Breaking down information into manageable parts reduces cognitive overload and enhances learning. Choice B is incorrect as relying solely on verbal instruction may be challenging for individuals with cognitive deficits. Choice C is incorrect because a stimulated and busy environment may hinder learning for someone with schizophrenia due to difficulty focusing. Choice D is incorrect as offering too many choices can be overwhelming and confusing, especially for those with cognitive disturbances.
Question 5 of 5
When a patient diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia was discharged from the unit 6 months ago, the plan was for him to take chlorpromazine (Thorazine), a conventional (first generation) antipsychotic medication, 300 mg po daily. He tells the nurse he stopped taking his pills after a few months because they made him feel like a 'zombie.' What other common side effects should the nurse determine if the patient experienced?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sedation, tremor, and muscle stiffness. This is because chlorpromazine, being a first-generation antipsychotic, commonly causes sedation, tremors, and muscle stiffness as side effects. Sedation is a common effect due to the drug's ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. Tremors and muscle stiffness are also common due to the drug's action on the central nervous system. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the expected side effects of chlorpromazine. Sweating, nausea, weight gain, headache, watery eyes, runny nose, mild fever, sore throat, and skin rash are not typically associated with this medication.