A definitive indication for elective caesarean section includes

Questions 63

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Varneys Midwifery Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A definitive indication for elective caesarean section includes

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Major degree of placenta praevia. Elective caesarean section is indicated in cases of placenta praevia to prevent potential life-threatening hemorrhage to both the mother and the baby during vaginal delivery. Placenta praevia occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, increasing the risk of bleeding as the cervix dilates during labor. Option A) Cord prolapse denoted in the first stage is a medical emergency that requires immediate delivery but does not necessarily indicate the need for an elective caesarean section. Option B) Failure of the first stage to progress may necessitate interventions to augment labor, such as oxytocin administration or assisted delivery, but it does not definitively indicate the need for a caesarean section. Option D) Fetal compromise denoted in the first stage may require further evaluation and interventions to support fetal well-being, but it does not specifically point towards the need for elective caesarean section unless other factors indicate it is the safest course of action for the baby. Understanding the indications for elective caesarean section is crucial for midwives and healthcare providers to ensure optimal outcomes for both the mother and the baby. Proper assessment and decision-making in such cases are essential to minimize risks and ensure the well-being of both patients.

Question 2 of 5

The presenting diameter in face presentation is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Submento-vertical for the presenting diameter in face presentation. In face presentation, the fetal head is hyperextended, presenting the face to the birth canal. The submento-vertical diameter refers to the distance between the submentum (chin) and the vertex (top of the head), which is the largest diameter in face presentation. This diameter is crucial for successful delivery in face presentation as it helps the head to negotiate the maternal pelvis. Option B) Mento-vertical is incorrect because it represents the distance between the chin and the occiput, which is not the largest diameter in face presentation. Option C) Suboccipito-bregmatic is incorrect as it refers to the diameter between the subocciput (back of the head) and the bregma (anterior fontanelle), which is relevant in vertex presentation, not face presentation. Option D) Submento-bregmatic is also incorrect as it combines two different points on the fetal head that are not the largest diameters in face presentation. Understanding the presenting diameters in different fetal presentations is essential for midwives to assess fetal position, progress of labor, and to make informed decisions regarding the mode of delivery. By knowing the correct diameters, midwives can provide optimal care to both the mother and baby during labor and birth.

Question 3 of 5

A circumscribed swelling on the newborn’s scalp is indicative of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Neonatal cephalhematoma. A neonatal cephalhematoma is a collection of blood between a baby's skull and the periosteum. This condition is caused by trauma during the birthing process, leading to the rupture of blood vessels. It usually appears as a well-defined swelling on the newborn's scalp and can take weeks to months to resolve. Option A) Caput succedaneum is a diffuse swelling of the scalp that crosses suture lines and is caused by pressure on the baby's head during labor. It typically resolves within a few days. Option B) Subgaleal hemorrhage is bleeding into the potential space between the scalp galea aponeurosis and periosteum. It can be extensive and life-threatening due to the large blood loss it can cause. Option C) Intracranial injury refers to damage within the skull, such as bleeding or swelling in the brain. This is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for midwives and healthcare providers working with newborns to accurately assess and manage these conditions. Recognizing the differences between these conditions can help prevent unnecessary interventions and ensure appropriate care for the newborn.

Question 4 of 5

Complications of deep venous thrombosis include:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and obstetrics, understanding the complications of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) is crucial for midwives. The correct answer is A) Pulmonary embolism, varicosity. 1. Pulmonary embolism is a life-threatening complication of DVT where a blood clot travels to the lungs, causing obstruction of the pulmonary arteries. This can lead to severe consequences such as respiratory distress and even death. 2. Varicosity refers to the development of varicose veins, which can occur as a result of DVT. Varicose veins are dilated, twisted veins that can cause pain, swelling, and skin changes in affected areas. Now, let's examine why the other options are incorrect: B) Moist gangrene and secondary postpartum hemorrhage are not commonly associated with DVT. Moist gangrene typically arises due to bacterial infection or impaired blood flow, while postpartum hemorrhage is more often related to issues like uterine atony or retained placental tissue. C) Hydronephrosis and hematoma formation are not typical complications of DVT. Hydronephrosis usually results from urinary tract obstructions, and hematomas are collections of blood outside of blood vessels that can occur due to trauma or clotting disorders. D) Prolonged labor and disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) are not directly linked to DVT. Prolonged labor can be due to various factors such as fetal malposition or inadequate contractions, while DIC is a complex condition involving widespread clotting and bleeding throughout the body. Educationally, understanding the complications of DVT is essential for midwives to recognize and manage these potentially serious conditions in pregnant individuals. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of DVT and its associated complications can help midwives provide timely interventions and prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and baby.

Question 5 of 5

Puerperal pyrexia is characterized by any episode of fever during the entire puerperium.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and puerperal pyrexia, it is crucial to understand the correct answer to this question. Puerperal pyrexia refers to fever occurring after childbirth, typically within the first 10 days postpartum. The statement that "puerperal pyrexia is characterized by any episode of fever during the entire puerperium" is FALSE. This is because puerperal pyrexia specifically refers to fever within the first 10 days after childbirth, not the entire puerperium period, which extends up to 6 weeks postpartum. Option A (TRUE) is incorrect because it inaccurately broadens the definition of puerperal pyrexia to encompass the entire puerperium, which is not the case. The correct answer, Option B (FALSE), is supported by the fact that puerperal pyrexia is a term used to describe fever specifically within the early postpartum period, not throughout the entire puerperium. Understanding this distinction is vital for healthcare professionals, especially midwives, as it guides the assessment, diagnosis, and management of febrile episodes in the postpartum period to ensure optimal maternal health and well-being.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions