A defined microorganism can be isolated in pure culture:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because isolating a defined microorganism in pure culture involves obtaining a single, distinct colony on solid media. This ensures that only one type of microorganism is present in the culture, preventing contamination. Liquid media can harbor multiple organisms, making it challenging to isolate a specific microorganism. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Choice B is also incorrect as liquid nutrient media does not provide the necessary isolation required for pure culture. Choice D is incorrect because isolating from single colonies on solid media allows for the pure culture of the defined microorganism.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: All are correct. Candida albicans can cause skin infections such as candidiasis. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes are common bacteria that can also cause skin infections. Therefore, choice B is correct as all three microorganisms listed can cause skin infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because individually, each of the microorganisms listed can cause skin infections.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Survival. Bacterial spores are specialized structures that bacteria form to survive harsh conditions such as extreme temperatures or lack of nutrients. Spores are not used for protection against phagocytosis (A) as they are dormant structures and not actively involved in defense mechanisms. They are not for reproduction (B) as spores are a form of bacterial reproduction but not the primary purpose of spore formation. Spores do not serve as nutrient storage (D) as they are mainly used for survival during unfavorable conditions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema. The characteristics described match Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. Treponema has long, spiral shape with 8-12 regular coils. Leptospira (B) is a spirochete but has fewer coils and causes leptospirosis. Borrelia (C) is another spirochete but typically has irregular coils and causes Lyme disease. Vibrios (D) are curved rods and not spirochetes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "None of the above," because viruses like Parotitidis (mumps), Rubella, and Influenza A are not typically associated with reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy. Reactivation is more commonly seen in latent viruses like herpesviruses (e.g., herpes simplex, varicella-zoster), cytomegalovirus, and Epstein-Barr virus. These viruses can remain dormant in the body and reactivate when the immune system is compromised. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the viruses mentioned in choices A, B, and C do not fit the criteria for reactivation under immunosuppressive therapy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: amensalism. Penicillin mold produces a substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria, but it does not benefit nor harm the bacteria directly. This relationship is characterized by one organism (the mold) negatively affecting another (the bacteria) without any benefit or harm to itself. In parasitism (A), one organism benefits at the expense of another. In mutualism (B), both organisms benefit from the relationship. In commensalism (C), one organism benefits while the other is unaffected. Therefore, the mold producing penicillin fits the definition of amensalism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculin. In this clinical scenario, the patient presents with symptoms suggestive of tuberculosis, including chronic cough, night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis. The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is used to screen for tuberculosis. Tuberculin, a purified protein derivative (PPD) derived from Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is injected intradermally. The test elicits a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction in individuals who have been exposed to the organism in the past. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to tuberculosis and does not differentiate between active infection and prior exposure. Explanation for other choices: B: Measles - Measles is a viral infection that presents with a characteristic rash and fever, not consistent with the symptoms described in the case. C: Tetanus and diphtheria toxoids vaccine (Td) - Td vaccine is not used for tuberculosis screening and does not elicit

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium that forms clusters and commonly causes pneumonia with a productive cough and fever. It is frequently found in sputum smears in such cases. Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) is another common cause of pneumonia but typically appears in pairs or chains, not clusters. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus that causes meningitis, not pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacterium that can cause pneumonia but appears as Gram-negative rods, not Gram-positive cocci in clusters.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for Choice C (Streptococcus pyogenes) being the correct answer: 1. Erysipelas is a skin infection characterized by well-defined red, inflamed skin areas. 2. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common causative agent of erysipelas. 3. This bacterium produces enzymes that break down skin proteins, leading to the characteristic symptoms of erysipelas. 4. Streptococcus pyogenes is known for causing skin infections, including erysipelas. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa: Typically causes opportunistic infections, but not commonly associated with erysipelas. B. Staphylococcus aureus: Can cause skin infections, but not typically associated with erysipelas. D. Candida albicans: Fungal infection, not a bacterium, and not known to cause erysipelas.