A defined microorganism can be isolated in pure culture:

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foundations in microbiology test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A defined microorganism can be isolated in pure culture:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because isolating a defined microorganism in pure culture involves obtaining a single, distinct colony on solid media. This ensures that only one type of microorganism is present in the culture, preventing contamination. Liquid media can harbor multiple organisms, making it challenging to isolate a specific microorganism. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Choice B is also incorrect as liquid nutrient media does not provide the necessary isolation required for pure culture. Choice D is incorrect because isolating from single colonies on solid media allows for the pure culture of the defined microorganism.

Question 2 of 9

Microscopic examination of a smear from a chancre revealed spiral microorganisms. The bacteria were thin and mobile with 8-12 regular coils. What is the likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct diagnosis is A: Syphilis. The spiral microorganisms described are characteristic of Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. The thin and mobile bacteria with 8-12 regular coils match the morphology of Treponema pallidum. Leptospirosis is caused by Leptospira interrogans, which are thicker and have hook-like ends, different from the described bacteria. Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, which has a different appearance than the thin, coiled bacteria in the smear. Relapsing fever is caused by Borrelia recurrentis, which typically have irregular coils, unlike the regular coils seen in the smear.

Question 3 of 9

Examination of a smear from a chancre revealed mobile, long, spiral microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema. The characteristics described match Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. Treponema has long, spiral shape with 8-12 regular coils. Leptospira (B) is a spirochete but has fewer coils and causes leptospirosis. Borrelia (C) is another spirochete but typically has irregular coils and causes Lyme disease. Vibrios (D) are curved rods and not spirochetes.

Question 4 of 9

A patient who came to the doctor because of his infertility was administered to make tests for toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea. Which reaction should be performed to reveal latent toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea in this patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: IFA - Immunofluorescence assay. Toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhea can be detected using serological tests like IFA. IFA detects specific antibodies in the patient's serum by using fluorescently labeled antibodies. This method is highly sensitive and specific for detecting both acute and latent infections. Explanation of Incorrect Choices: A: RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay - This test is not commonly used for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea. B: RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay - This test is not typically used for these specific infections. D: Immunoblot analysis - While Immunoblot analysis is a useful confirmatory test for certain infections, it is not the primary method for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea.

Question 5 of 9

The organism often called “flesh-eating bacteria†is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium is commonly known as "flesh-eating bacteria" due to its ability to cause severe tissue destruction and necrotizing fasciitis. Streptococcus pyogenes produces toxins that break down skin and muscle tissues. Staphylococcus aureus (A) can cause skin infections but is not typically associated with necrotizing fasciitis. Staphylococcus epidermidis (B) is a normal skin flora and rarely causes infections. Propionibacterium acnes (D) is associated with acne and not known for causing tissue destruction. Therefore, the correct choice is Streptococcus pyogenes due to its unique ability to cause severe tissue damage and necrotizing fasciitis.

Question 6 of 9

In humans, the embryonic phase of development extends from fertilization to the end of week __________, after which the developing infant is called a fetus.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 8. The embryonic phase in humans lasts until the end of week 8. During this time, the major organs and structures of the body begin to form. After week 8, the developing organism is referred to as a fetus. Choice A (2) is too early for this transition to occur, Choice B (6) is also premature, and Choice D (12) is too late as the embryonic phase ends before week 12. Therefore, the correct answer is C (8) as it accurately reflects the timeline of embryonic development in humans.

Question 7 of 9

A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-positive cocci in pairs. The bacteria were catalase-negative and alpha-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This is because the bacterium is Gram-positive cocci in pairs, catalase-negative, and alpha-hemolytic, which are characteristic features of S. pneumoniae. The other choices can be ruled out based on specific characteristics: B) Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive, C) Enterococcus faecalis is gamma-hemolytic, and D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram-negative diplococcus. Therefore, based on the given information, S. pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent of the sepsis.

Question 8 of 9

An 18-year-old patient has developed candidiasis after the case of pneumonia treated with β-lactam antibiotic. What antimycotic agent should be prescribed?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluconazole. 1. Fluconazole is an antifungal agent effective against Candida species commonly causing candidiasis. 2. Streptomycin (B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not fungal. 3. Phthalylsulfathiazole (C) is an antibacterial agent, not antifungal. 4. Ampicillin (D) is a β-lactam antibiotic, which can actually contribute to fungal infections like candidiasis.

Question 9 of 9

All statements about plasmids are correct except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because plasmids do not encode essential bacterial properties. They are non-essential, extra-chromosomal DNA molecules that can replicate independently within bacterial cells. Plasmids mainly contain genes for antibiotic resistance, genetic transfer, and other specific functions. Choice A is correct as many plasmids do carry antibiotic resistance genes. Choice B is also accurate as plasmids are indeed smaller, circular, and exist outside the bacterial chromosome. Choice D is true as plasmids can facilitate bacterial conjugation, allowing the transfer of genetic material between bacteria.

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