A couple undergoing fertility treatments asks about male factor infertility. What should the nurse discuss?

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Multiple Choice Questions on Infertility Questions

Question 1 of 5

A couple undergoing fertility treatments asks about male factor infertility. What should the nurse discuss?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sperm count, motility, and morphology are indeed critical factors in male fertility. Sperm count refers to the number of sperm present, motility is the ability of sperm to move effectively, and morphology relates to the shape and structure of sperm. These factors directly impact a man's fertility potential. Choice A is incorrect because male infertility can have various causes, not solely low testosterone levels. Choice C is incorrect as male infertility can impact the success of fertility treatments. Choice D is incorrect because semen analysis is a key diagnostic tool for identifying male factor infertility.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is educating a client about hysterosalpingograms. Which information should the nurse include prior to this procedure?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer C: 1. Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) involves instillation of a radiopaque dye into the uterine cavity to visualize the uterus and fallopian tubes. 2. This dye helps to identify any abnormalities or blockages in the reproductive system. 3. The nurse should include this information as it is essential for the client to understand the purpose and process of the procedure. 4. Understanding the use of the dye can help alleviate any anxiety or concerns the client may have. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: This procedure is typically performed without general anesthesia. B: HSG can be performed at various points in the menstrual cycle, not specifically after ovulation. D: Tylenol may be recommended for pain relief post-procedure, but it is not a necessary pre-procedure step.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is educating a patient about the role of luteal phase support in fertility treatments. What should be emphasized?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because luteal phase support is crucial in fertility treatments to maintain the uterine lining for potential embryo implantation. Progesterone supplementation is necessary to support this phase, as it ensures a hospitable environment for the embryo. Option A is incorrect because luteal phase support primarily focuses on progesterone, not estrogen. Option C is incorrect as hormonal monitoring is still essential during fertility treatments. Option D is incorrect because luteal phase support does not prevent the LH surge, which is necessary for ovulation.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is providing education to a pregnant woman whose genetic testing confirms her fetus has Down syndrome. The nurse understands that Down syndrome is an example of which abnormality?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abnormality of chromosomal number. Down syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, leading to trisomy 21. This results in characteristic physical features and intellectual disability. Chromosomal translocation (A) involves the swapping of genetic material between chromosomes. Multifactorial monosomy inheritance (C) refers to a combination of genetic and environmental factors leading to the loss of a chromosome. Autosomal-recessive inheritance (D) requires two copies of a mutated gene to be present for the disorder to manifest, which is not the case in Down syndrome.

Question 5 of 5

A 44-year-old woman presents with an unexpected pregnancy. She asks the nurse, 'Is my baby going to have a birth defect? My third cousin has Down syndrome.' What is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because advanced maternal age (AMA), generally defined as 35 years or older, is a well-known risk factor for chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome. Step 2: Down syndrome is more common in babies born to mothers over the age of 35 due to the increased likelihood of errors in cell division during egg development. Step 3: Given the patient's age of 44, she falls into the category of AMA and is at an increased risk for chromosomal abnormalities in her baby. Step 4: Option A is incorrect as the risk is not solely based on gene mutation but rather on the increased chance of chromosomal abnormalities due to age. Step 5: Option B is incorrect as it focuses on intrauterine growth retardation, which is not directly related to the patient's query about birth defects. Step 6: Option C is incorrect as a referral to high-risk obstetrics may not be necessary solely based on the patient's

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