A correct statement denoting the purpose of vitamin K administration to neonates is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All neonates need vitamin K for activation of thrombokinase. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver, including thrombokinase, which plays a crucial role in blood clotting. In neonates, there is a deficiency of vitamin K due to limited transfer across the placenta and low levels in breast milk. Administering vitamin K at birth helps prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because vitamin K does not directly impact immunity, prevent jaundice, or promote normal gut bacteria growth in neonates.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Iron and folic acid. Diamorphic anemia is characterized by the presence of both microcytic and macrocytic red blood cells, which can be caused by a deficiency in both iron and folic acid. Iron deficiency leads to microcytic anemia, while folic acid deficiency results in macrocytic anemia. Thiamine deficiency (Choice A) primarily affects the nervous system and does not directly cause diamorphic anemia. Liver enzymes deficiency (Choice D) does not directly lead to diamorphic anemia. Folic acid and thiamine deficiency (Choice C) can cause individual types of anemia but not diamorphic anemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in cases of anteriorly situated placenta praevia, where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, a classical caesarean section is indicated to prevent severe bleeding during delivery. For choice B, a posteriorly situated placenta praevia does not necessitate a classical caesarean section. Choice C, gestation of more than 32 weeks, does not specifically indicate the need for a classical caesarean section. Choice D, aesthetic purpose on maternal request, is not a valid medical indication for a classical caesarean section.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tonic. During the tonic stage of eclampsia, the muscles go into a prolonged contraction leading to an arched back and tightly clenched teeth. This is due to sustained muscle rigidity. In contrast, the clonic stage involves rhythmic muscle contractions and relaxations, not sustained rigidity. The premonitory stage is characterized by warning signs like headaches and visual disturbances, not specific physical postures. Coma is a severe stage of unconsciousness, not associated with specific physical postures or muscle rigidity seen in the tonic stage of eclampsia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (Low ACTH and low cortisol) because in patients with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome, the tumor autonomously produces cortisol, leading to suppression of ACTH secretion from the pituitary. This results in low ACTH levels and high cortisol levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the characteristic hormone levels seen in patients with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (36 weeks gestation) because at this point in pregnancy, the fetus has reached a stable lie position. Before 36 weeks, fetal lie can vary due to the ample space in the uterus. After 36 weeks, the fetus tends to settle into a consistent head-down or breech position, making the lie stable. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are past the point where the lie typically stabilizes, leading to less variability in fetal positioning.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CT urogram. This is the appropriate next step in the workup for Melanie's microscopic hematuria. A CT urogram can provide detailed imaging of the urinary tract to identify any structural abnormalities or causes of hematuria. A urology consultation (choice A) may be necessary after the imaging results. Upper urinary imaging (choice C) is not specific enough and may not provide a comprehensive evaluation. Cystoscopy (choice D) is invasive and typically reserved for cases where lower urinary tract issues are suspected, which is not indicated in Melanie's case without further evaluation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Uterine atony is the most common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contraction to control bleeding. This is supported by research and clinical evidence. Trauma to the genital tract is a less common cause and usually leads to delayed hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect as uterine atony is a well-documented primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as uterine atony is consistently the leading cause. Choice D is incorrect as the cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage is clear, with uterine atony being the most common culprit.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex. This is because virilizing tumors typically involve excessive production of androgens, which are male sex hormones, and are commonly associated with adrenal cortex disorders. A is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors can be either benign or malignant, not always carcinomas. B is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors are rare compared to virilizing tumors. D is incorrect because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be benign rather than malignant in children. In summary, the correct answer highlights the common association of virilizing tumors with the adrenal cortex in women, while the other choices present incorrect information regarding the types and malignancy of adrenal tumors.