A correct statement about shoulder dystocia is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Shoulder dystocia is an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head because the anterior shoulder gets stuck behind the pubic symphysis during childbirth. This can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby if not managed promptly. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Impaction of the posterior shoulder is not referred to as shoulder dystocia; it is the impaction of the anterior shoulder that causes the complication. C: Shoulder dystocia is not caused by a compound presentation of the fetus, which refers to a situation where more than one fetal part presents at the maternal pelvis simultaneously. D: Shoulder dystocia is indeed an emergency that requires immediate intervention, as delays can lead to birth injuries and complications. It does not resolve on its own and needs medical assistance.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A ruptured uterus can lead to fetal distress and necessitate a cesarean section. Failure of the cervix to dilate is indicative of a potential uterine rupture, as the uterus may not be able to contract effectively due to the rupture. Maternal dehydration (A), pyrexia (B), and oliguria (C) are not specific signs of a ruptured uterus and may be present in various other conditions. Therefore, failure of the cervix to dilate is the most relevant early sign in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech presentation. This is because the frank breech presentation is the most common type of breech presentation, accounting for about 50-70% of all breech births. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the legs extended up towards the head. This position is considered the most favorable for a vaginal delivery compared to the other types of breech presentations. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Complete breech presentation - This type of breech presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the knees bent and the feet near the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. C: Incomplete breech presentation - In this type, one or both of the baby's legs are presenting first instead of the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. D: Footling breech presentation - This type occurs when one or both of the baby's feet

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because precipitate delivery, characterized by rapid descent and delivery of the baby, can cause cervical lacerations due to the fast and forceful passage of the baby through the birth canal. This can result in tearing of the cervical tissue. Choice A is incorrect because uterine atony is not typically associated with precipitate delivery. Choice B is incorrect as puerperal sepsis is not directly related to the speed of delivery. Choice C is incorrect as the occurrence of precipitate delivery does not guarantee reduced risk of recurrence with prenatal monitoring.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit. This method involves flexing the hips, extending the thighs, and applying suprapubic pressure to deliver the head in a complete breech presentation. This technique helps to avoid hyperextension of the neck and potential spinal cord injury. The Lovset maneuver (A) is used for delivering the arms in a breech presentation. The Burns Marshall method (C) involves performing an episiotomy and delivering the baby by flexion and traction on the legs. Gentle traction of the neck (D) is not recommended as it can cause spinal cord injury. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit is the preferred method for safe delivery of the head in a complete breech presentation.