ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
A correct statement about an acute small for gestational age neonate is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an acute small for gestational age neonate will have all body parts proportionately reduced in size compared to a normal gestational age baby. This is due to intrauterine growth restriction. Choice B is incorrect because the head is not disproportionately larger. Choice C is incorrect as it states the body is larger than the head, which is not the case in SGA babies. Choice D is incorrect as SGA babies typically appear thin with a scaphoid abdomen, not plumpy.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is highly associated with preterm babies?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Multiple gestation. Preterm birth is more common in multiple gestation pregnancies due to the increased strain on the mother's uterus and cervix. This can lead to early labor and delivery. Social habits (choice A) and genetic factors (choice B) may play a role in preterm birth but are not highly associated. Chronic conditions (choice D) can also contribute to preterm birth, but multiple gestation is a stronger predictor.
Question 3 of 9
A non-pharmacological measure of pain relief in labour includes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Homeopathy. Homeopathy involves using highly diluted substances to stimulate the body's natural healing processes. In labor, homeopathy can help manage pain and support relaxation. Entonox (A) and Diamorphine (D) are pharmacological measures, while Cyclothane (B) is not a recognized pain relief option in labor. Homeopathy aligns with non-pharmacological approaches, making it the most suitable choice for pain relief in labor.
Question 4 of 9
Mr. Jefferson is a 59-year-old male who presents to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. His medical history is significant for dyslipidemia, and he takes 40 mgof simvastatin daily. He admits to drinking 6 to 10 bottles of beer nightly and to smoking 1 packs of cigarettes a day. He denies any history of chest pain or cardiovascular disease. He was in his usual state of good health until a couple of hours ago, when he developed this acute onset of severe pain in the upper abdomen. He says that he tried to wait it out at home but it was so bad he finally came in. His vital signs are as follows temperature 99.1F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 13784 mm Hg. The abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation with some guarding but no rebound tenderness. The AGACNP anticipates that which of the following laboratory tests will be abnormal?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A complete blood count and RBC differential. In this case, Mr. Jefferson presents with severe abdominal pain, which could indicate various conditions like pancreatitis, a possible complication of his heavy drinking. A complete blood count (CBC) with RBC differential can help assess for signs of inflammation or infection, which may be elevated in conditions like pancreatitis. The RBC differential can also provide insights into potential causes of abdominal pain, such as anemia or other blood disorders. Summary: - B: Liver function enzymes may be affected in conditions like alcoholic liver disease, but in this case, the focus should be on investigating acute abdominal pain. - C: Serum amylase, lipase, and glucose are typically checked in cases of suspected pancreatitis, but a CBC with RBC differential would provide a more comprehensive initial assessment. - D: A basic metabolic panel may not directly address the underlying cause of the acute abdominal pain and is not the most appropriate test to anticipate
Question 5 of 9
R. S. is a 66-year-old female with Cushings syndrome due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. The tumor is readily isolated by imaging, and the patient had an uneventful surgery. When seeing her in follow-up, the AGACNP anticipates
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones. After surgical removal of the ACTH-producing pituitary tumor in Cushing's syndrome, there may be a transient rebound release of remaining pituitary hormones due to relief of negative feedback from the tumor. This can lead to a temporary increase in pituitary hormone levels before normalization. Rationale: 1. Rapid reversal of symptoms with good pituitary function (Choice A) is less likely as it takes time for the pituitary gland to recover and resume normal hormone production post-surgery. 2. Markedly improved dexamethasone suppression test (Choice C) is not expected immediately after surgery as it may take time for the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis to normalize. 3. Hyponatremia and compensatory SIADH (Choice D) are unlikely post-operatively in Cushing's syndrome as removal of the ACTH-producing tumor should lead to normalization of
Question 6 of 9
McEwen sign is associated with
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Myelomeningocele. McEwen sign refers to the characteristic scalloping of the frontal bones due to pressure from the expanding brain in individuals with myelomeningocele. This sign is specific to myelomeningocele and is not associated with hydrocephalus (A), microcephaly (C), or encephalocele (D), which have different clinical manifestations and imaging findings. Myelomeningocele is a neural tube defect where the spinal cord and its coverings protrude through an opening in the spine, leading to neurological deficits and associated signs like McEwen sign.
Question 7 of 9
Psychosocial adversities are among the predisposing factors of puerperal psychosis.
Correct Answer: T
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Puerperal psychosis is a severe mental health condition occurring postpartum. 2. Psychosocial adversities, such as stress or lack of social support, can trigger or exacerbate mental health issues. 3. Therefore, psychosocial adversities can be predisposing factors for puerperal psychosis. 4. Option A (TRUE) is correct as it aligns with the established relationship between psychosocial factors and mental health. Summary: Option A is correct because psychosocial adversities can indeed contribute to the development of puerperal psychosis, making it a relevant predisposing factor. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide any rationale or evidence to support their validity.
Question 8 of 9
Intraperitoneal uterine rupture involves
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because intraperitoneal uterine rupture involves a tear that goes through all layers of the uterus - endometrium, myometrium, and peritoneum. This type of rupture extends beyond the muscular layer of the uterus and into the peritoneal cavity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not include the peritoneum, which is a key component of intraperitoneal uterine rupture. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the layers involved in this type of rupture.
Question 9 of 9
The commonest major cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Atony of the uterus is the most common cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contractions. Step 2: Trauma of the genital tract can lead to bleeding but is not as common as atony of the uterus in postpartum hemorrhage. Step 3: Blood coagulation disorder can contribute to excessive bleeding but is not the primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Step 4: Prolonged 3rd stage can result in postpartum hemorrhage but is typically secondary to uterine atony.