ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the term for a condition where one or more members of a household, including children, consistently have little or no food due to lack of money?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Food Insecurity'. This term specifically describes a situation where household members consistently have inadequate access to food due to financial constraints. 'Marginal Food Security' (Choice A) refers to a situation where the quality or variety of food is reduced, but there is no significant decrease in food intake. A 'Food Desert' (Choice B) is an area with limited access to affordable and nutritious food. 'Very Low Food Security' (Choice C) is a term used to describe a severe level of food insecurity where eating patterns of household members are disrupted and food intake is reduced.
Question 2 of 9
Select all that apply. Characteristics of the 2 main types of essential fatty acids discussed in class include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'they must be supplied by the diet.' Essential fatty acids, like omega-3 and omega-6, cannot be produced by the body and must be obtained through the diet. They are polyunsaturated fatty acids, playing vital roles in inflammation and cell membrane structure. Choice B is incorrect because essential fatty acids cannot be produced by dehydrogenation, a process of removing hydrogen. Choice C is incorrect as not all essential fatty acids are anti-inflammatory; some have pro-inflammatory roles. Choice D is incorrect because not all essential fatty acids are polyunsaturated; omega-9, for example, is a monounsaturated essential fatty acid.
Question 3 of 9
Does the reduction in oxidative damage that occurs with energy restriction in animals also occur in people whose diets include _____?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'antioxidants and phytochemicals'. Antioxidants and phytochemicals help reduce oxidative damage in the body, contributing to healthy aging and a lower risk of chronic diseases. This is the same effect observed in animals when their energy intake is restricted. The other choices are incorrect as there is no direct evidence connecting reduced oxidative damage with diets high in fiber and carbohydrates, fatty acids and protein, or probiotics.
Question 4 of 9
What food would most likely be included in Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, plain yogurt. Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet includes pureed or smooth foods that are easy to swallow. Plain yogurt fits this criteria as it is smooth and can be easily consumed without posing a risk of choking. Choices A, B, and C are not typically included in Level 1 of the diet. Peanut butter, oatmeal, and fruit preserves are not usually suitable for individuals on Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet as they may present a choking hazard or are not in a pureed or smooth form.
Question 5 of 9
Select all that apply. To lower LDL levels, you should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To lower LDL levels, reducing intake of hydrogenated (trans) and saturated fats is crucial, as these types of fats can raise LDL cholesterol in the blood. Choice B is incorrect because both soluble and insoluble fibers can help lower LDL levels. Choice C is incorrect as excessive alcohol consumption can lead to increased LDL levels. Choice D, engaging in regular physical activity, can help raise HDL (good) cholesterol levels but is not directly related to lowering LDL levels.
Question 6 of 9
A breastfeeding mother complains that she missed her son's last two feedings and now her breasts have become full, hard, and uncomfortable. This condition is known as _____.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Engorgement occurs when the breasts become overly full, leading to discomfort and sometimes difficulty with latching. It can be relieved by feeding or expressing milk. Mastitis, choice A, is characterized by breast inflammation usually caused by an infection. Letdown, choice C, refers to the release of milk from the breast. Galactorrhea, choice D, is the spontaneous flow of milk from the breast unassociated with childbirth or nursing.
Question 7 of 9
Each is a characteristic manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG), except one. Which is the exception?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marasmus. Marasmus is a form of severe malnutrition and is not a direct manifestation of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG). Choices A, B, and D are all characteristic manifestations of NUG. Gingival erythema, necrosis of interdental papilla, and metallic taste with foul odor are commonly associated with NUG due to the inflammatory and necrotic nature of the condition.
Question 8 of 9
Can fluid retention cause lab values to be deceptively high, whereas dehydration may cause the values to be deceptively low?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The statement is incorrect. Fluid retention generally results in lab values appearing deceptively low, not high, because the excess fluid dilutes the concentration of substances in the blood. Conversely, dehydration can make lab values appear deceptively high as the reduced fluid volume in the body means substances in the blood are less diluted. Choices 'C: Not always' and 'D: Sometimes' are not specific and do not directly address the statement in the question, hence they are incorrect.
Question 9 of 9
Which systolic blood pressure measurement is classified as prehypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: According to the blood pressure classification, a systolic blood pressure between 120-139 mmHg is considered prehypertension. This range indicates an increased risk for developing hypertension if not managed appropriately. Therefore, a systolic blood pressure of 119 mmHg falls into the prehypertension category. A systolic pressure of 106 mmHg is within the normal range, while 130 mmHg and above would be classified as stage 1 and stage 2 hypertension respectively, not prehypertension.