ATI RN
Healthy People 2030 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A community nurse is conducting an educational program on various environmental pollutants. The nurse should emphasize the clients who have which of the following disorders that are especially vulnerable in the ozone effects.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asthma. Ozone can exacerbate respiratory conditions like asthma due to its irritating effects on the airways. Asthma patients are more vulnerable to ozone-induced respiratory symptoms. Chicken pox (A), Scarlet Fever (C), and Malaria (D) are not directly affected by ozone exposure. Asthma is the most relevant disorder in this context due to its respiratory nature and susceptibility to ozone effects.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing education about communicable diseases. During which of the following status is the period in which a disease is contagious?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Communicability period. This is the period during which a disease can be transmitted from an infected person to others. The incubation period (A) is the time between exposure to the pathogen and the onset of symptoms. Vector (C) refers to an organism that carries and transmits the disease but does not determine the contagious period. Immune duration (D) is the length of time a person is protected from the disease after being exposed or vaccinated and does not relate to the contagiousness of the disease.
Question 3 of 5
How would the community health nurse demonstrate the public health nursing practice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because public health nursing practice involves assessing the needs of the community as a whole and providing care based on those needs. This includes conducting community assessments to understand the population's health issues and developing interventions to address them. Choice A is vague and does not address the core principles of public health nursing. Choice C is incorrect as public health nursing is a recognized specialty within the nursing profession. Choice D is incorrect because public health nursing practice is collaborative and involves working with the community to identify and address its needs, rather than deciding independently.
Question 4 of 5
Which action by the community health nurse working at a Kaiser Permanente clinic would best represent secondary prevention
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because vision screening for school-age children falls under secondary prevention. This action aims to detect vision problems early in children who may not show symptoms, preventing further complications. It focuses on early detection and intervention to reduce the impact of vision issues. Choice B (Hearing test for adults) would fall under tertiary prevention as it aims to manage and treat existing hearing problems. Choice C (Blood pressure reading for children) would fall under primary prevention as it aims to prevent the development of high blood pressure through early detection and lifestyle interventions.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse in a community clinic is assessing an older client for manifestations of dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furrows in the tongue. Dehydration can lead to dry mouth and decreased saliva production, causing the tongue to develop furrows. Edema (A) is a sign of fluid retention, opposite of dehydration. Bounding pulses (C) are associated with fluid overload, not dehydration. Healthy skin (D) is a general indicator of good overall health and does not specifically point to dehydration. In summary, furrows in the tongue are a direct manifestation of dehydration, while the other choices are more indicative of fluid overload or general health status.