ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A common chronic complication of diabetes due to the thickening of the capillaries and arterioles of the eye is?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diabetic retinopathy. This condition is a common complication of diabetes that occurs due to the thickening of capillaries and arterioles in the eye, leading to damage to the retina. This can result in vision problems and even blindness if left untreated. A: Papilledema is the swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure, not related to diabetes. B: Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the eye, not directly caused by diabetes. C: Retinal detachment is the separation of the retina from the underlying tissues, which is not primarily caused by diabetes-related capillary changes.
Question 2 of 9
A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe perineal pain and swelling following a vaginal delivery. On assessment, the nurse notes ecchymosis and tenderness of the perineum. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The client presenting with persistent, severe perineal pain and swelling, along with ecchymosis and tenderness of the perineum, could be indicative of complications such as a perineal hematoma. A perineal hematoma is a collection of blood in the perineal tissues and can be a serious postpartum complication requiring prompt medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to alert the healthcare provider so that appropriate assessment, management, and treatment can be initiated promptly. Applying ice packs or encouraging the client to sit on a donut cushion may not be sufficient in this situation, and administering additional analgesic medication should be done only after the healthcare provider has assessed and determined the cause of the symptoms.
Question 3 of 9
To begin your discussion, you explain to her that the endocrine glands include, which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it includes all the major endocrine glands: pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenals, pancreatic islets, and hypothalamus. The pituitary gland is known as the "master gland" as it controls other endocrine glands. The thyroid gland regulates metabolism, while the parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels. The adrenal glands produce hormones involved in stress response. Pancreatic islets produce insulin and glucagon. The hypothalamus plays a key role in hormone regulation. Choice B is incorrect because it includes ovaries and testes, which are not endocrine glands. Choice C is incorrect because it omits the hypothalamus. Choice D is incorrect because it includes ovaries and testes which are not endocrine glands.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is prescribed a statin medication for lipid-lowering therapy. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain or weakness. Statins can cause muscle-related side effects, including rhabdomyolysis, a severe condition that can lead to muscle pain and weakness. Monitoring for these symptoms is crucial to prevent serious complications. B: Dry cough is not a common side effect of statins. C: Hypertension is not directly associated with statin use. D: Hyperkalemia is not a typical adverse effect of statins.
Question 5 of 9
The patient asks Nurse Vera, when could you hear the fetal heart of my baby? Which of the following should be the BEST answer of Nurse Vera?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fifth month. Nurse Vera should explain that the fetal heart can typically be heard using a Doppler ultrasound device around the fifth month of pregnancy. This is because the baby's heart is developed enough to produce audible sounds by this time. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the ninth month, the baby is ready for delivery, in the third month the heart is still developing, and in the first month the heart is just beginning to form and is not yet audible.
Question 6 of 9
Informed consent in this study will be obtained by Myra from the
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informed consent should be obtained from both the participants and their parents to ensure full understanding and agreement from all parties involved. This is crucial when working with minors to protect their rights and ensure ethical standards are met. Choice A is incorrect as it excludes parental consent, which is necessary for minors. Choice B is also incorrect as it neglects the participants' direct involvement in consenting to participate. Choice C is incorrect because it only includes available relatives, which may not be legally authorized to provide consent on behalf of the participants.
Question 7 of 9
While patient Sarah is confined in the hospital, the safety measure to be observed by the nurses is prevention from fall. This is brought about by the patient being prone to fracture as a result of________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weakened bones, making individuals more susceptible to fractures, especially with minor trauma or falls. In the context of a patient prone to fractures, nurses should be particularly cautious about fall prevention. A: The aging process alone does not necessarily lead to an increased risk of fractures. While aging is a risk factor for osteoporosis, it is not the direct cause of fractures in this case. C: Changes in vision can contribute to an increased risk of falls, but it is not the primary reason for the patient being prone to fractures in this scenario. D: Hematologic conditions may affect bone health, but they are not typically the primary cause of increased fracture risk in patients.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is the RATIONALE for instilling eye drops to patients who had eye surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: To help control the intra-ocular pressure Rationale: 1. Eye surgery can lead to increased intra-ocular pressure. 2. Instilling eye drops can help reduce this pressure post-surgery. 3. Controlling intra-ocular pressure is crucial for proper healing and preventing complications. 4. Eye drops for infection (B) or pupil dilation/constriction (C, D) are not primary concerns post-eye surgery.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a history of stroke is prescribed aspirin and clopidogrel for dual antiplatelet therapy. Which nursing intervention is essential for preventing bleeding complications in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administering proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) concomitantly. Aspirin and clopidogrel can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. PPIs help reduce this risk by decreasing gastric acid production. Therefore, administering PPIs with dual antiplatelet therapy is essential for preventing bleeding complications. Encouraging increased fluid intake (B) may not directly address the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of thrombocytopenia (C) is important but may not directly prevent bleeding in this case. Providing education on fall prevention measures (D) is important for overall safety but does not directly address bleeding risks associated with dual antiplatelet therapy.