ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A common chronic complication of diabetes due to the thickening of the capillaries and arterioles of the eye is?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diabetic retinopathy. This condition is a common complication of diabetes that occurs due to the thickening of capillaries and arterioles in the eye, leading to damage to the retina. This can result in vision problems and even blindness if left untreated. A: Papilledema is the swelling of the optic disc due to increased intracranial pressure, not related to diabetes. B: Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the eye, not directly caused by diabetes. C: Retinal detachment is the separation of the retina from the underlying tissues, which is not primarily caused by diabetes-related capillary changes.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is preparing to perform a chest tube insertion for a patient with a pneumothorax. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure proper placement of the chest tube?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because confirming the insertion site and direction using imaging guidance ensures precise placement of the chest tube, minimizing the risk of complications. Imaging guidance allows the nurse to visualize the exact location of the pneumothorax and guide the tube insertion accurately. A: Positioning the patient in a semi-Fowler's position with arms elevated may be beneficial for comfort but does not directly ensure proper chest tube placement. B: Marking the insertion site with a pen may help as a reference point but does not guarantee accurate placement. C: Administering analgesia is important for the patient's comfort but does not impact the placement of the chest tube. In summary, choice D is the most critical step to ensure the chest tube is correctly placed and effectively treats the pneumothorax.
Question 3 of 9
The physician inserted a chest tube drainage to Mr. Alda in order to help re-expand the lungs. Which of the following should you prepare FIRST as a nurse in case of emergency when the tube is accidentally disconnected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - sterile clamps Rationale: 1. **Immediate action**: Sterile clamps are essential to clamp the chest tube to prevent air from entering the pleural space. 2. **Prevent lung collapse**: Clamping the tube will prevent lung collapse and maintain positive pressure in the pleural space. 3. **Buy time**: By clamping the tube, you buy time to properly reattach the tube or secure it with a new connection. 4. **Safety**: Sterile clamps are a quick and effective solution to prevent a potentially life-threatening situation. Summary of other choices: B: Sterile dressing - Not the first priority as the immediate concern is preventing air from entering the pleural space. C: Another chest tube - Not necessary initially as clamping can buy time to reattach the disconnected tube. D: A bottle of sterile water - Not needed for emergency management of a disconnected chest tube.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following regulates the practice of the nursing profession?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing. This board is specifically tasked with regulating the practice of the nursing profession, ensuring that nurses adhere to ethical and professional standards. The Department of Health (A) focuses on public health policies, not individual professional regulation. The Professional Regulation Commission (B) oversees various professions but does not specialize in nursing. The Civil Service Commission (C) deals with civil service matters, not professional nursing regulation. Therefore, the Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing is the most appropriate choice for regulating the nursing profession.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix) for secondary prevention of thrombotic events. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor closely during clopidogrel therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count. Platelet count should be monitored closely during clopidogrel therapy because it works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Monitoring platelet count helps assess the drug's effectiveness and prevent potential complications like bleeding or clotting events. Prothrombin time (A), activated partial thromboplastin time (B), and international normalized ratio (D) are tests that primarily assess the coagulation factors and are not directly affected by clopidogrel therapy, making them less relevant for monitoring this specific medication.
Question 6 of 9
When communicating with a patient who is hard of hearing, what is an essential consideration for the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because positioning oneself at eye level helps the patient see the nurse's facial expressions and lip movements, aiding in communication. Speaking clearly and slowly allows the patient to better understand. Speaking loudly can distort sound and may not be necessary. Avoiding visual aids or gestures limits communication channels. Speaking quickly can overwhelm the patient and hinder comprehension.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with acute onset of shoulder pain and limited range of motion after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Physical examination reveals tenderness over the greater tuberosity of the humerus and pain with passive abduction and external rotation of the shoulder. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rotator cuff tear. The presentation of acute shoulder pain and limited range of motion after a fall onto an outstretched hand, along with tenderness over the greater tuberosity and pain with passive abduction and external rotation, is classic for a rotator cuff tear. The mechanism of injury and physical exam findings are consistent with this condition. B: Glenohumeral dislocation typically presents with a visibly deformed shoulder and loss of normal shoulder contour. C: Acromioclavicular joint separation would present with tenderness over the AC joint rather than the greater tuberosity, and typically involves a history of direct trauma to the shoulder. D: Proximal humerus fracture would present with more diffuse shoulder pain and swelling, and not specific tenderness over the greater tuberosity.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse specialist explains that chemotherapyis extremely toxic to the bone marrow and the patient may develop thrombocytopenia. What is the priority goal of the nurse? To take precautions to control _______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Chemotherapy can lead to low platelet counts (thrombocytopenia), increasing the risk of bleeding. The priority goal of the nurse is to prevent bleeding by taking precautions such as avoiding invasive procedures, using soft toothbrushes, and monitoring for signs of bleeding. Infection (B) is important but not the priority as bleeding can be life-threatening. Hypotension (C) is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Diarrhea (D) is a potential side effect of chemotherapy but is not the priority when considering thrombocytopenia.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT of collaboration in a health care settings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because interprofessional collaboration and multidisciplinary collaboration are not interchangeable terms. Interprofessional collaboration involves professionals from different disciplines working together to provide comprehensive care, while multidisciplinary collaboration involves professionals from various disciplines working alongside each other but not necessarily working together in a coordinated manner. This distinction is crucial in healthcare settings to ensure effective teamwork and patient-centered care. A: Trust and respect are core values of a collaborative organization - This statement is correct because trust and respect are essential for effective collaboration in healthcare settings. B: A shared vision is essential for collaboration in any health care operations - This statement is correct as a shared vision helps align team members towards common goals. C: Successful conflict resolution can help collaborative teams overcome differences - This statement is correct as resolving conflicts constructively can strengthen team dynamics and improve collaboration.