A client with thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemia develops epistaxis. The nurse should instruct the client to:

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Question 1 of 9

A client with thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemia develops epistaxis. The nurse should instruct the client to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sit upright, leaning slightly forward. This position helps to minimize blood flow to the head, reducing the risk of increased bleeding. It also prevents blood from flowing down the throat, reducing the risk of aspiration. A: Lying supine with the neck extended can increase pressure on the blood vessels in the head, potentially worsening the epistaxis. C: Blowing the nose and putting lateral pressure can disrupt any clots that may have formed and increase bleeding. D: Holding the nose while bending forward at the waist can lead to blood flowing down the throat and increase the risk of aspiration.

Question 2 of 9

Arthur, a 66-year old client for pneumonia has a temperature ranging from 39° to 40° C with periods of diaphoresis. Which of the following interventions by Nurse Carlos would be a priority?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen therapy. This is the priority intervention because a high temperature and diaphoresis indicate potential respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy can help improve oxygenation and support respiratory function. Providing frequent linen changes (B) is important for hygiene but not the priority. Fluid intake (C) is essential but not as urgent as addressing respiratory distress. Maintaining complete bed rest (D) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation takes precedence in this case.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise the collaborative problem part of the diagnostic statement because impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. A collaborative problem involves potential complications that require both nursing and medical interventions. In this case, impaired physical mobility is a nursing diagnosis that requires nursing interventions to address the patient's inability to ambulate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are all relevant components of a nursing diagnostic statement: A - Etiology identifies the cause of the nursing diagnosis, B - Nursing diagnosis states the health problem, and D - Defining characteristic provides evidence supporting the nursing diagnosis.

Question 4 of 9

A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Related to impaired balance. The rationale for this is that a cerebellar brain tumor can affect the client's coordination and balance due to its location in the brain responsible for fine motor movements. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and injuries. Visual field deficits (choice A) may contribute to the risk of injury but not as directly as impaired balance. Difficulty swallowing (choice C) and psychomotor seizures (choice D) are not directly related to the client's risk for injury due to a cerebellar brain tumor.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client who’s hypoglycemic. This client will have a blood glucose level:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Below 70mg/dl. Hypoglycemia is defined as a blood glucose level below 70mg/dl. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include confusion, shakiness, and sweating. Treating hypoglycemia involves administering fast-acting carbohydrates. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe blood glucose levels that are within the normal or hyperglycemic range, which are not indicative of hypoglycemia. It is essential for the nurse to recognize and promptly address hypoglycemia to prevent serious complications.

Question 6 of 9

What is the focus of a diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The potential complication. In a collaborative problem, the focus of a diagnostic statement should be on identifying potential complications that may arise due to the client's health issue. This is important for developing effective interventions to prevent or manage these complications. Choice A focuses on the client's problem itself, not on potential complications. Choice C is related to nursing diagnosis, not collaborative problems. Choice D refers to medical diagnosis, which is different from collaborative problems involving nursing and other healthcare disciplines. Therefore, B is the correct focus for a diagnostic statement in a collaborative problem scenario.

Question 7 of 9

The Glasgow coma scale is used to .evaluate the level of consciousness in the neurological and neurological patients. The three assessment factors included in this scale are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness by evaluating these three factors. Eye opening assesses the patient's ability to open their eyes spontaneously or in response to stimuli. Verbal response evaluates the patient's ability to speak or respond to verbal stimuli. Motor response assesses the patient's motor function by testing responses to commands or painful stimuli. Choice A is incorrect because it includes "response to pain" instead of "verbal response." Choice B is incorrect because it includes "verbal response" instead of "eye opening." Choice D is incorrect because it includes "eye opening" instead of "verbal response." In summary, the GCS evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response to determine the level of consciousness in patients.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the ff diets does the nurse recommend for clients with hypertension under the physicians guidance?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The DASH diet is specifically designed to help lower blood pressure, making it the most appropriate choice for clients with hypertension. Step 2: The DASH diet emphasizes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and low-fat dairy, all of which are beneficial for managing hypertension. Step 3: The diet also limits sodium intake, which is crucial for controlling blood pressure. Step 4: The other options (A, B, and C) do not have the same evidence-based focus on hypertension management and may not be as effective in lowering blood pressure.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should anticipate the administration of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: vasopressin (Pitressin). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps regulate water balance by reducing urine output. Therefore, administering vasopressin would help manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. Insulin (A) is used for diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. Potassium chloride (B) is used to correct potassium imbalances, not specific to diabetes insipidus. Furosemide (Lasix) (C) is a diuretic that increases urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus.

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