A client with thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemia develops epistaxis. The nurse should instruct the client to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sit upright, leaning slightly forward. This position helps to minimize blood flow to the head, reducing the risk of increased bleeding. It also prevents blood from flowing down the throat, reducing the risk of aspiration. A: Lying supine with the neck extended can increase pressure on the blood vessels in the head, potentially worsening the epistaxis. C: Blowing the nose and putting lateral pressure can disrupt any clots that may have formed and increase bleeding. D: Holding the nose while bending forward at the waist can lead to blood flowing down the throat and increase the risk of aspiration.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. Thymectomy involves the surgical removal of the thymus gland, which is often abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis. The thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and can contribute to the autoimmune response seen in myasthenia gravis. By removing the thymus gland, the autoimmune response may be reduced, leading to substantial remission of symptoms. Choice A, Esophagostomy, involves creating a surgical opening into the esophagus and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis. Choice C, Myomectomy, is the surgical removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, Spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a standard treatment for myasthenia gravis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C: 0.25 mg is the correct daily dosage of Digoxin for adults with heart failure. This dosage is within the usual range of 0.125-0.25 mg. It helps improve heart function and manage heart failure symptoms. A: 0.005 mg is too low and ineffective. B: 0.025 mg is also too low for therapeutic effect. D: 2.5 mg is too high and may lead to toxicity in most adult patients.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Active listening. Active listening is crucial when working with a dying client and their family as it involves fully concentrating, understanding, responding, and remembering what is being said. This technique helps the nurse show empathy, build trust, and provide emotional support. By actively listening, the nurse can better understand the client's needs and concerns, which is essential in end-of-life care. Reflection (A) involves paraphrasing what the client said, which may not always be appropriate in this sensitive situation. Clarification (B) and Interpretation (C) involve adding one's own understanding or perspective, which can be intrusive and may not align with the client's feelings or beliefs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pathologic bone fractures. In multiple myeloma, there is an increase in osteoclast activity leading to bone destruction, making patients prone to pathologic fractures. Chronic liver failure (A), acute heart failure (C), and hypoxemia (D) are not directly associated with multiple myeloma pathophysiology. This highlights the importance of understanding the disease process to determine the correct answer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose of the outcome identification and planning step of the nursing process (step 3) is to design a plan of care for and with the client. This involves setting specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals to address the client's health problems. By involving the client in the planning process, it promotes client autonomy and ensures that the plan is tailored to their individual needs and preferences. Options A and B focus on data collection and analysis, which are steps 1 and 2 of the nursing process. Option C refers to nursing diagnosis, which is part of step 2 (diagnosis). Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it pertains to the specific purpose of the outcome identification and planning step.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms after age 40 for early breast cancer detection. 2. Mammograms are most effective for women aged 40 and older in detecting breast cancer. 3. Regular mammograms can help detect breast cancer at an early stage, improving treatment outcomes. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Mammograms should start at age 40, not after the birth of the first child. C: Mammograms are not recommended after the first menstrual period; they should start at age 40. D: Mammograms should be done annually after age 40, not every 3 years between ages 20 and 40.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess swallowing reflex. This is crucial for a patient with Bell's Palsy as it can affect their ability to swallow properly, leading to inadequate nutrition intake. By assessing the swallowing reflex, the nurse can determine if the patient is at risk of aspiration or difficulty in eating, which directly impacts their nutrition status. Monitoring meal trays (A) may not provide accurate information on actual food intake. Checking weights (B) only gives limited information on nutrition status. Measuring intake and output (C) is important for fluid balance but may not directly reflect adequate nutrition intake.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: L4-L5. This is because the L4-L5 intervertebral disc segment experiences the highest amount of mechanical stress and mobility in the lumbar spine, making it more prone to herniation. Additionally, nerve roots at this level innervate the lower extremities, making it a common site for symptoms such as sciatica. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because herniations at those levels are less common due to lower mechanical stress and mobility compared to L4-L5.