Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with severe head trauma sustained in a car accident is admitted to the intensive care unit. Thirty six-hours later, the client’s urine output suddenly rises above 200mL/hour, leading the nurse to suspect diabetes insipidus. Which laboratory findings support the nurse’s suspicion of diabetes insipidus?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Below-normal urine osmolality level, above-normal serum osmolality level. In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the excretion of large volumes of dilute urine. This results in low urine osmolality as the kidneys are unable to concentrate the urine. On the other hand, the serum osmolality increases due to the lack of ADH causing water retention. Therefore, the laboratory findings of low urine osmolality and high serum osmolality support the diagnosis of diabetes insipidus. Explanation for other choices: A: Above-normal urine and serum osmolality levels - This does not align with the pathophysiology of diabetes insipidus. B: Below-normal urine and serum osmolality levels - This is incorrect as low serum osmolality is not characteristic of diabetes insipidus. C: Above-normal urine osmolality level, below-normal

Question 2 of 5

The best way to tell whether or not a patient is breathing, is for the nurse to watch the movement of the:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Chest and nostrils." This is because observing the movement of the chest and nostrils is the most reliable way to determine if a patient is breathing. The chest rises and falls with each breath, and the nostrils may flare or move as air is inhaled and exhaled. Monitoring these areas provides a direct indication of respiratory effort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the act of breathing. Extremities, head, and eyeball movements are not reliable indicators of breathing function.

Question 3 of 5

A client's IV fluid orders for 24 hour's are 1500 ml D5W followed by 1250 ml of NS. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/ml. To administer the required fluids the nurse should set the drip rate at;

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, we first need to find the total volume of IV fluid to be administered, which is 1500 ml + 1250 ml = 2750 ml. Then, we multiply the total volume by the drop factor (2750 ml * 15 gtt/ml = 41250 gtt). Finally, we divide the total number of drops by the time in minutes (24 hours * 60 min = 1440 min) to get the drip rate: 41250 gtt / 1440 min = 28.47 gtt/min, which rounds up to 29 gtt/min. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the given parameters.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the ff is a nursing intervention when assessing clients with hypertension?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because teaching the client about both non-pharmacologic and pharmacologic methods for managing hypertension is a crucial nursing intervention to empower the client in their self-care and treatment plan. This intervention helps the client understand the importance of lifestyle modifications and medication adherence in controlling blood pressure. A: The nurse taking the temperature in different positions is not directly related to assessing hypertension. C: Taking BP in different positions is important for orthostatic hypotension, not specifically for hypertension. D: Weighing the client each morning is not a direct nursing intervention for assessing hypertension.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is preparing an intravenous infusion of phenytoin (Dilantin) as prescribed by the physician for the client with seizures. Which of the following solutions will the nurse plan to use to dilute this medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Normal saline solution. Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions, so options A and D are incorrect. Lactated Ringer's solution contains calcium, which can interact with phenytoin, leading to precipitation. Therefore, option B is also incorrect. Normal saline is the most compatible diluent for phenytoin, maintaining the drug's stability and effectiveness. It is essential to use the appropriate diluent to prevent adverse reactions or drug interactions.

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