ATI RN
Oxygenation Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with pulmonary embolism is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). PT measures the clotting ability of the blood and is crucial in monitoring anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Changes in PT can indicate potential complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Platelet count (A) assesses risk of bleeding, but not specific to anticoagulant therapy. Hemoglobin level (C) monitors for anemia, not directly related to anticoagulant therapy. White blood cell count (D) indicates infection or inflammation, not specific to anticoagulant therapy complications.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client with tuberculosis about the importance of medication adherence. What is the most critical point to emphasize?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Completing the full course of medication is crucial to prevent drug resistance and fully eradicate the bacteria. B: Taking medication only when symptoms worsen can lead to treatment failure and spread of drug-resistant strains. C: Avoiding direct sunlight is not directly related to medication adherence in tuberculosis treatment. D: Consuming a high-fat diet does not improve drug absorption and is not necessary for treatment success.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. Hypoxemia can lead to tissue damage and organ dysfunction. Oxygen therapy is needed to improve oxygen saturation. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent. Mucus in the tracheostomy tube can be suctioned, mild redness can be monitored for infection, and effective coughing indicates airway patency.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with acute dyspnea is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan. Which information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider before the CT?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Allergy to shellfish is critical as iodinated contrast used in CT scans may cause an allergic reaction. 2. Respiratory rate of 30 is concerning but may be due to dyspnea, which is the reason for the CT scan. 3. Apical pulse of 104 is slightly elevated but not an immediate concern for the CT scan. 4. O2 saturation of 90% is low, but the patient may need oxygen during the CT scan, not necessarily a contraindication. Summary: Communicating the allergy to shellfish is essential as it impacts the safety of using contrast during the CT scan. The other vital signs may be addressed during or after the scan without posing an immediate risk.
Question 5 of 5
A patient hospitalized with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged home on O2 therapy. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because O2 therapy can indeed improve a COPD patient's prognosis and quality of life by providing supplemental oxygen to help with breathing. Increasing O2 flow without healthcare provider guidance (B) can be dangerous. Travel is possible with portable O2 devices (A). O2 is stored in small tanks or concentrators, not large metal tanks lasting 4-6 hours (D).