ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with primary diabetes insipidus is ready for discharge on desmopressin (DDAVP). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.” Rationale: 1. Desmopressin is available in intranasal form for diabetes insipidus. 2. Nasal discharge or blockage may prevent proper absorption of the medication. 3. Instructing the client about this potential issue ensures optimal drug effectiveness. Summary: A: Incorrect. Temperature of desmopressin suspension doesn't affect its efficacy. B: Incorrect. A medical identification bracelet is necessary for chronic conditions like diabetes insipidus. D: Incorrect. Monitoring fluid intake and output is crucial when taking desmopressin.
Question 2 of 9
A client is hospitalized with oat cell carcinoma of the lung. To manage severe pain, the physician prescribes a continuous I.V. infusion of morphine. Which formula should the nurse use to check that the morphine dose is appropriate for the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct formula to calculate the appropriate morphine dose for the client is 5 mg/kg of body weight. This is the most suitable formula because morphine dosing is typically based on weight to ensure appropriate pain management and to prevent adverse effects. By using this formula, the nurse can calculate the exact dose based on the client's weight, providing personalized care. Choice A (1 mg/kg of body weight) is too low of a dose and may not effectively manage severe pain. Choice B (5 mg/70kg of body weight) is not ideal as it does not account for variations in weight among individuals. Choice D (10mg/70kg of body weight) would result in an overdose for most patients, potentially causing serious harm. Therefore, by using the formula of 5 mg/kg of body weight, the nurse can ensure that the morphine dose is appropriate and safe for the client.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is attempting to prompt the patient to elaborate on the reports of daytime fatigue. Which question should the nurse ask?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to reflect on potential causes of their fatigue, leading to a more in-depth exploration of the issue. Option A focuses on stress, not necessarily fatigue. Option C is too specific and may not uncover underlying causes. Option D assumes sleep duration is the only factor contributing to fatigue.
Question 4 of 9
For a client with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis, the physician prescribes the corticosteroid prednisone (Deltasone). When caring for this client, the nurse should monitor for which adverse drug reactions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adverse reactions such as increased weight due to fluid retention, hypertension due to sodium retention, and insomnia due to its stimulating effects. Vaginal bleeding, jaundice, inflammation, stupor, breast lumps, pain, dyspnea, numbness, and headache are not commonly associated with prednisone use. Monitoring for weight changes, blood pressure, and sleep patterns is essential when administering prednisone to a client with rheumatoid arthritis for early detection and management of adverse reactions.
Question 5 of 9
Clients will go through operations and who have undergone surgery need the proper observation, treatment, and care. Implementing the nursing process to these patients will help reduce complications. Nurse Maria is preparing Mr. Sy for surgery. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate he is well-informed about his imminent surgery?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mr. Sy's statement indicates he understands the pre-operative fasting instructions, which is crucial to prevent aspiration during surgery. Not eating after midnight reduces the risk of complications. A: Incorrect. Wearing a pneumatic compression device post-surgery is important, but this statement does not demonstrate understanding of pre-surgery preparations. C: Incorrect. Knowing the skin preparation site size does not indicate understanding of the surgery process. D: Incorrect. Signing the consent form at the operating table may indicate lack of understanding of the consent process and timing. In summary, choice B is correct as it shows Mr. Sy's awareness of the fasting requirement before surgery, which is crucial for a safe operation.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse observes the client as he walks into the room. What information will this provide the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because observing the client's gait while walking can provide valuable information about their physical mobility, balance, coordination, and any potential musculoskeletal issues. This assessment helps the nurse determine if the client requires any assistance, mobility aids, or further evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices B and C are incorrect as observing gait does not directly provide information on personality or psychosocial status. Choice D is incorrect as gait observation is not specifically related to the rate of recovery from surgery. In summary, observing the client's gait is important for assessing physical mobility and identifying potential issues, making it the most relevant choice in this context.
Question 7 of 9
To combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, the nurse would administer an:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. Administering an antiemetic helps to manage these side effects and improve the patient's comfort and compliance with treatment. Antibiotics (choice B) are used to treat bacterial infections and are not directly related to combating chemotherapy side effects. Antimetabolites (choice C) are a type of chemotherapy drug, not used to combat its side effects. Anticoagulants (choice D) are used to prevent blood clots and are not indicated for managing chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the ff is a sign or symptom of asthma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paroxysms or shortness of breath. Asthma is characterized by episodes of wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath, known as paroxysms. This symptom is caused by inflammation and constriction of the airways in response to triggers such as allergens or irritants. A: Production of abnormally thick, sticky mucus in lungs is more indicative of conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. B: Faulty transport of sodium in lung cells is associated with conditions like cystic fibrosis, not asthma. D: Altered electrolyte balance in the sweat glands is a symptom of cystic fibrosis, not asthma. In summary, paroxysms or shortness of breath is a key sign of asthma due to airway inflammation and constriction, distinguishing it from the other choices that are more indicative of cystic fibrosis.
Question 9 of 9
A client has been receiving chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment finding suggests that the client has developed stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because red, open sores on the oral mucosa are a common sign of stomatitis, which can be caused by chemotherapy. Stomatitis is characterized by inflammation and ulceration of the mouth lining. The other choices are incorrect because: A: White, cottage cheese-like patches are indicative of oral thrush, a fungal infection. C: Rust-colored sputum may indicate a respiratory condition or infection, not stomatitis. D: Yellow tooth discoloration is not typically associated with stomatitis, but can be caused by various factors such as poor oral hygiene or certain foods.