A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of a client with Preeclampsia receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion, the nurse should report a urinary output of 24 mL/hr to the provider. This finding suggests oliguria, which can indicate impaired renal function or magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate is excreted by the kidneys, so a low urinary output could indicate decreased clearance of the medication, leading to potential toxicity. Option A (2+ deep tendon reflexes) is a normal finding in a client receiving magnesium sulfate due to its neuromuscular effects. Option B (2+ pedal edema) is a common symptom in preeclampsia but is not directly related to magnesium sulfate infusion. Option D (respirations 12/min) is within the normal range and not typically a concern with magnesium sulfate infusion unless respiratory depression is present. Educationally, understanding the importance of monitoring urinary output in clients receiving magnesium sulfate is crucial for safe and effective nursing care. It highlights the need for close assessment and communication with the healthcare provider to prevent complications associated with magnesium sulfate therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, which is depleted in cases of acetaminophen overdose, thus preventing liver damage. Pegfilgrastim is a medication used to stimulate white blood cell production, misoprostol is a medication used to prevent gastric ulcers, and naltrexone is used in the management of opioid addiction and alcohol dependence, which are not indicated in the scenario described.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct response is C) The medication will relieve your mother's constipation. Methylnaltrexone is a medication used to treat opioid-induced constipation in patients with chronic non-cancer pain and those with advanced illness receiving opioids for pain management, such as in end-stage cancer. Option A is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not increase respirations. Option B is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not prevent dependence on Morphine; it specifically targets constipation. Option D is incorrect because Methylnaltrexone does not work with Morphine to increase pain relief; its primary purpose is to address constipation caused by opioid use. Educationally, it is important for nurses to understand the rationale behind using adjunct medications such as Methylnaltrexone in patients receiving opioids to manage their symptoms effectively and improve their quality of life. By addressing opioid-induced constipation, healthcare providers can help patients continue their pain management regimen while minimizing uncomfortable side effects.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, option B, "Assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis frequently during administration," is the correct precaution when administering Pamidronate to a client with bone pain related to cancer. Pamidronate is a bisphosphonate medication used to treat high blood calcium levels and bone problems that may occur with certain types of cancer. Bisphosphonates can irritate veins and cause inflammation, leading to thrombophlebitis. Monitoring the IV site for signs of thrombophlebitis is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety during administration. Option A, "Inspect the skin for redness and irritation when changing the intradermal patch," is incorrect as Pamidronate is not administered via an intradermal patch, so this precaution is irrelevant to its administration. Option C, "Instruct the client to sit upright or stand for 30 min following oral administration," is incorrect as Pamidronate is not typically administered orally. It is usually given intravenously, making this precaution unnecessary for this medication. Option D, "Watch for manifestations of anaphylaxis for 20 min after IM administration," is incorrect because Pamidronate is not typically administered intramuscularly. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur with any medication, but this precaution is not specific to Pamidronate administration in this case. Educationally, understanding the specific administration routes, side effects, and precautions associated with different medications is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective patient care. By knowing the correct precautions for each medication, healthcare professionals can minimize risks and optimize treatment outcomes for their patients.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Regular insulin, also known as short-acting insulin, typically exhibits a peak effect around 1 to 5 hours following administration. This rapid onset and peak effect make it suitable for managing postprandial glucose levels. In contrast, Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect, NPH insulin has an intermediate duration of action, and Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that peaks within 30 minutes to 2.5 hours after administration.