ATI RN
Virtual ATI Pharmacology Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alendronate, a bisphosphonate, treats osteoporosis but risks esophageal irritation. Taking it with water and staying upright prevents reflux, ensuring safety and absorption. With meals reduces uptake via calcium binding. Crushing increases irritation risk. Bedtime heightens reflux. This instruction aligns with alendronate's administration guidelines, critical in osteoporosis where adherence prevents fractures, making A the key teaching point.
Question 2 of 9
A month after receiving a blood transfusion an immunocompromised male patient develops a fever, liver abnormalities, a rash, and diarrhea. The nurse would suspect this patient has:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is a potential complication in immunocompromised patients after receiving blood transfusions. It occurs when donor lymphocytes attack the recipient's tissues, leading to symptoms such as fever, rash, liver dysfunction, and diarrhea. This condition typically arises weeks to months after transfusion. An allergic response to medication would not explain the systemic symptoms. Myelosuppression is unrelated to transfusion. Therefore, GVHD is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
Which activity has a higher priority for the nurse to advise the patient to avoid while taking ixazomib?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ixazomib, a proteasome inhibitor, can cause myelosuppression, increasing the risk of infections. Patients should be advised to avoid crowds and individuals who are ill to reduce exposure to infectious agents. While alcohol and aspirin may interact with other medications, they are not specifically contraindicated with ixazomib. Taking the drug on an empty stomach is not required, as it can be taken with or without food. Preventing infections is the highest priority due to the drug's impact on the immune system.
Question 4 of 9
The client receives beclomethasone (Beconase) intranasally as treatment for allergic rhinitis. He asks the nurse if this drug is safe because it is a glucocorticoid. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beclomethasone's low systemic absorption minimizes serious effects , reassuring its safety for rhinitis. Swallowing , duration , and dosing aren't primary concerns. A aligns with its safety profile, making it the best response.
Question 5 of 9
An elderly woman took a prescription medicine to help her to sleep; however, she felt restless all night and did not sleep at all. The nurse recognizes that this woman has experienced which type of reaction or effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An idiosyncratic reaction is an unusual or unexpected response to a medication that is not related to the drug's known pharmacological effects. In this case, the elderly woman experienced restlessness instead of sedation, which is contrary to the expected effect of a sleep aid. Idiosyncratic reactions are unpredictable and can vary widely among individuals. Allergic reactions involve the immune system, mutagenic effects involve genetic changes, and synergistic effects involve interactions between multiple drugs. Since the woman's response was unexpected and not consistent with the drug's intended effect, it is classified as an idiosyncratic reaction.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse notes in the patient™s medication orders that the patient will be starting anticoagulant therapy. What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of anticoagulant therapy is to prevent the formation of blood clots or thrombi. Anticoagulants work by inhibiting the clotting process in the blood, thereby reducing the risk of clot formation in the blood vessels. This helps to prevent conditions such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, stroke, and other thromboembolic events. Anticoagulants do not dissolve existing clots (thrombus), they work to prevent new clots from forming. So, the main objective of starting anticoagulant therapy in a patient is to prevent the development of thrombi.
Question 7 of 9
The ulcerogenic properties of aspirin is caused by the following, except
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The ulcerogenic properties of aspirin are primarily caused by the inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis, particularly through the inhibition of the enzyme cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1). Prostaglandins play a crucial role in maintaining the protective mucus barrier in the stomach lining. When prostaglandin synthesis is inhibited, this protective barrier is compromised, leading to increased susceptibility to damage from the acidic gastric environment. The drug's acidity itself (Choice A), by irritating the stomach lining, can contribute to ulcer formation. Thromboxane inhibition (Choice B) is not directly related to the ulcerogenic properties of aspirin but is more associated with the drug's antiplatelet effects. Cox-1 inhibition (Choice D) is a key factor in aspirin-induced gastrointestinal injury as it disrupts the normal mucosal defense mechanisms.
Question 8 of 9
Atropine:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atropine, a muscarinic antagonist, causes bronchodilation by relaxing bronchial smooth muscle, a true statement used in asthma or COPD. It produces mydriasis (pupil dilation), not miosis (constriction), making that false, as it blocks parasympathetic tone. It's highly lipid-soluble, crossing the blood-brain barrier, so that's false. It doesn't block acetylcholine (ACh) reuptake (there's no such mechanism) but competitively inhibits muscarinic receptors, so that's incorrect. It reduces, not increases, salivary secretions. Bronchodilation is a primary therapeutic effect, reflecting atropine's anticholinergic action, critical for respiratory applications and distinguishing it from sympathomimetics.
Question 9 of 9
The physician prescribes fluticasone (Flonase) for the client. The nurse would hold the drug and contact the physician with which assessment finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluticasone, an intranasal corticosteroid, is Category C, meaning fetal risks aren't fully known, so pregnancy prompts holding the drug and consulting the physician to weigh benefits versus potential harm. Diabetes or hypertension aren't contraindications; systemic effects are minimal with nasal use. Glaucoma might concern intraocular pressure with prolonged steroid use, but it's not an immediate hold reason. Pregnancy requires caution due to unknown teratogenic effects, making choice B the nurse's priority to ensure fetal safety and align with prescribing guidelines.